Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a radical nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma. The nurse notes that the client’s blood pressure has decreased from 134/90 to 100/56 mm Hg and urine output is 20 mL for this past hour. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client to lay on the surgical incision.
• B. Measure the specific gravity of the client’s urine.
• C. Administer intravenous pain medications.
• D. Assess the rate and quality of the client’s pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should first fully assess the client for signs of volume depletion and shock, and then notify the provider. The radical nature of the surgery and the proximity of the surgery to the adrenal gland put the client at risk for hemorrhage and adrenal insufficiency. Hypotension is a clinical manifestation associated with both hemorrhage and adrenal insufficiency. Hypotension is particularly dangerous for the remaining kidney, which must receive adequate perfusion to function effectively. Re-positioning the client, measuring specific gravity, and administering pain medication would not provide data necessary to make an appropriate clinical decision, nor are they appropriate interventions at this time.

2. A nursing assistant is measuring the blood pressure (BP) of a hypertensive client while a nurse observes. Which action on the part of the assistant would interfere with accurate measurement and prompt the nurse to intervene? Select all that apply.

• A. Measuring the BP after the client has sat quietly for 5 minutes
• B. Having the client sit with the arm bared and supported at heart level
• C. Using a cuff with a rubber bladder that encircles less than 80% of the limb
• D. Measuring the BP after the client reports that he just drank a cup of coffee

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To ensure accurate blood pressure (BP) measurement, the cuff used should have a rubber bladder that encircles at least 80% of the limb being measured. This ensures proper compression and accurate readings. Choices A and B are correct practices as it is recommended to measure BP after the client has sat quietly for 5 minutes and to have the client sit with the arm bared and supported at heart level. Choice D is also a correct reason for intervention as the client should not have consumed caffeine or smoked tobacco within 30 minutes before BP measurement, as it can affect the accuracy of the reading.

3. A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should have which of the following laboratory results reviewed to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC).
• B. Prothrombin time (PT).
• C. International normalized ratio (INR).
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.

4. What should the nurse do before an echocardiogram for a client who has had a myocardial infarction?

• A. Ensuring no food or drink for 4 hours before the procedure
• B. Obtaining informed consent from the client
• C. Assessing for any history of iodine or shellfish allergies
• D. Informing the client about the painless nature and duration of the procedure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client that the echocardiogram is a painless procedure that usually takes 30 to 60 minutes to complete. Echocardiography is a noninvasive, risk-free, and pain-free test that uses ultrasound to evaluate the heart's structure and motion. There is no need for special preparation before the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because imposing nothing-by-mouth status, obtaining informed consent, and assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish are not necessary steps before an echocardiogram.

5. A client with a history of lung disease is at risk for respiratory acidosis. For which of the following signs and symptoms does the nurse assess this client?

• A. Disorientation and dyspnea
• B. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea
• C. Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias
• D. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Disorientation and dyspnea. In respiratory acidosis, the retention of carbon dioxide leads to an increase in carbonic acid, causing the pH of the blood to decrease. This can result in symptoms such as dyspnea (difficulty breathing) due to hypoxia and disorientation due to the effects of hypercapnia (elevated carbon dioxide levels) on the brain. Choice B is incorrect because while drowsiness and tachypnea can be present in respiratory acidosis, headache is not a common symptom. Choice C is incorrect because dizziness and paresthesias are not typical symptoms of respiratory acidosis. Choice D is incorrect because dysrhythmias and a decreased respiratory rate and depth are more commonly associated with respiratory alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis.

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