Nursing Elites

1. Laboratory findings indicate that a client's serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
• B. Prepare to administer a glucose-insulin-potassium replacement.
• C. Change the plan of care to include hourly urinary output measurement.
• D. Instruct the client to increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. The immediate action the nurse should take is to inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement. Option B, preparing to administer glucose-insulin-potassium replacement, is not the first-line intervention; it may be considered in specific situations but requires a healthcare provider's prescription. Option C, changing the plan of care to include hourly urinary output measurement, is not the priority when managing critically low potassium levels. Option D, instructing the client to increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods, is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate intervention is needed to address the dangerously low potassium level.

2. What is the most common side effect of diuretics such as furosemide (Lasix)?

• A. Hypokalemia.
• B. Hyperkalemia.
• C. Hypernatremia.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypokalemia.' Diuretics like furosemide increase the excretion of potassium, leading to hypokalemia as a common side effect. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is the opposite condition characterized by high potassium levels, which is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (choice C) is increased sodium levels, while hyponatremia (choice D) is decreased sodium levels, neither of which are the most common side effects of furosemide. Therefore, choice A is the best answer.

3. A client recovering from a cystoscopy is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Decrease in urine output
• B. Blood clots present in the urine
• C. Prescription for metformin
• D. A & B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a cystoscopy, the nurse should monitor urine output and promptly contact the provider if there is a decrease or absence of urine output. Additionally, the nurse should assess for blood in the urine. While some pink-tinged urine may be expected, the presence of gross bleeding or blood clots warrants immediate provider notification. Tolerating oral fluids is a positive sign and does not require urgent intervention. Metformin would be a concern if the client received contrast dye, which is not used in a cystoscopy. A burning sensation when urinating is a common post-procedure experience and does not necessitate contacting the provider. Therefore, choices A and B are the correct answers as they indicate potentially serious complications that require immediate attention, while choices C and D do not align with urgent concerns following a cystoscopy.

4. A client reports for a scheduled electroencephalogram (EEG). Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional preparation for the test?

• A. I didn’t shampoo my hair.
• B. I ate breakfast this morning.
• C. I didn’t take my anticonvulsant today.
• D. It was hard not to drink coffee this morning, but I knew that I couldn’t, so I didn’t.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. For an EEG, it is essential that the client's hair is clean, without any products like hairspray or gel, to ensure good electrode contact with the scalp. Choice B is not a concern as having breakfast is allowed before the test. Choice C, not taking an anticonvulsant, might be required for certain types of EEGs to capture accurate brain activity. Choice D, not drinking coffee, is not a specific requirement for an EEG preparation.

5. A client is receiving Cilostazol (Pletal) for peripheral arterial disease causing intermittent claudication. The nurse determines this medication is effective when the client reports which of the following?

• A. I am having fewer aches and pains.
• B. I do not have headaches anymore.
• C. I am able to walk further without leg pain.
• D. My toes are turning grayish black in color.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cilostazol improves blood flow to the muscles, which helps alleviate symptoms of intermittent claudication. An improvement in walking distance without leg pain indicates the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A and B are not directly related to the expected outcome of Cilostazol therapy for intermittent claudication. Choice D is concerning for a potential adverse effect and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately.

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