HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A client with a completed ischemic stroke has a blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Position the head of the bed (HOB) flat.
- B. Withhold intravenous fluids.
- C. Administer a bolus of IV fluids.
- D. Give an antihypertensive medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a completed ischemic stroke, an elevated blood pressure like 180/90 mm Hg requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Giving an antihypertensive medication is essential to reduce the risk of recurrent stroke or complications related to hypertension. Positioning the head of the bed flat, withholding IV fluids, or administering a bolus of IV fluids are not appropriate actions for managing elevated blood pressure in this scenario and may not address the underlying cause of the hypertension or prevent potential complications.
2. The client who has a history of Parkinson's disease for the past 5 years is being assessed by the nurse. What symptoms would this client most likely exhibit?
- A. Loss of short-term memory, facial tics, and grimaces, and constant writhing movements.
- B. Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head.
- C. Extreme muscular weakness, easy fatigability, and ptosis.
- D. Numbness of the extremities, loss of balance, and visual disturbances.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Parkinson's Disease, a common neurologic progressive disorder in older clients, is characterized by symptoms such as shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head and hands. Choice A is incorrect as symptoms like loss of short-term memory, facial tics, and constant writhing movements are not typically associated with Parkinson's disease. Choice C is incorrect as extreme muscular weakness, easy fatigability, and ptosis are more indicative of other conditions like myasthenia gravis. Choice D is incorrect as numbness of the extremities, loss of balance, and visual disturbances are not classic symptoms of Parkinson's disease.
3. When a patient is receiving high doses of a cephalosporin, which laboratory values will this patient's nurse monitor closely?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN), serum creatinine, and liver function tests
- B. Complete blood count and electrolytes
- C. Serum calcium and magnesium
- D. Serum glucose and lipids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient is receiving high doses of a cephalosporin, such as cefazolin, the nurse should closely monitor laboratory values that indicate renal and hepatic function. This includes checking the Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels to assess kidney function. Additionally, monitoring liver function tests, such as AST, ALT, ALP, LDH, and bilirubin, is essential as cephalosporins can affect liver enzymes. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address the parameters that are most pertinent when administering high doses of cephalosporins.
4. A client with acute glomerulonephritis (GN) is being evaluated by a nurse. Which manifestation should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the prescribed treatment?
- A. The client has lost 11 pounds in the past 10 days.
- B. The client’s urine specific gravity is 1.048.
- C. No blood is observed in the client’s urine.
- D. The client’s blood pressure is 152/88 mm Hg.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A weight loss of 11 pounds in the past 10 days indicates fluid loss, a positive response to treatment for acute glomerulonephritis. It signifies that the glomeruli are functioning adequately to filter excess fluid. A urine specific gravity of 1.048 is high, indicating concentrated urine, which is not a positive response in this context. Blood in the urine is not a typical finding in glomerulonephritis, so its absence is expected and does not indicate a positive response to treatment. A blood pressure of 152/88 mm Hg is elevated and may suggest kidney damage or fluid overload, which are not positive responses to treatment.
5. A client reports for a scheduled electroencephalogram (EEG). Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional preparation for the test?
- A. I didn’t shampoo my hair.
- B. I ate breakfast this morning.
- C. I didn’t take my anticonvulsant today.
- D. It was hard not to drink coffee this morning, but I knew that I couldn’t, so I didn’t.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. For an EEG, it is essential that the client's hair is clean, without any products like hairspray or gel, to ensure good electrode contact with the scalp. Choice B is not a concern as having breakfast is allowed before the test. Choice C, not taking an anticonvulsant, might be required for certain types of EEGs to capture accurate brain activity. Choice D, not drinking coffee, is not a specific requirement for an EEG preparation.
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