a client with a completed ischemic stroke has a blood pressure of 18090 mm hg which action should the nurse implement
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. A client with a completed ischemic stroke has a blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a completed ischemic stroke, an elevated blood pressure like 180/90 mm Hg requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Giving an antihypertensive medication is essential to reduce the risk of recurrent stroke or complications related to hypertension. Positioning the head of the bed flat, withholding IV fluids, or administering a bolus of IV fluids are not appropriate actions for managing elevated blood pressure in this scenario and may not address the underlying cause of the hypertension or prevent potential complications.

2. A client recovering from surgery has a large abdominal wound. Which of the following foods, high in vitamin C, should the nurse encourage the client to eat to promote wound healing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Oranges are a rich source of vitamin C, which is essential for wound healing due to its role in collagen synthesis. Citrus fruits like oranges, as well as other fruits and vegetables such as strawberries, kiwi, bell peppers, and broccoli, are high in vitamin C. Meats like steak and veal are not significant sources of vitamin C; they are primarily sources of protein. Cheese is not a good source of vitamin C but does provide calcium and protein.

3. The nurse assumes care for a patient who is currently receiving a dose of intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) infusing at 20 mg/min. The nurse notes red blotches on the patient’s face, neck, and chest and assesses a blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When vancomycin is infused too rapidly, “red man” syndrome may occur; the rate should be 10 mg/min to prevent this. This is a toxic reaction, not an allergic one, so epinephrine is not indicated. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is characterized by a rash and fever. Red man syndrome is not related to renal function.

4. A healthcare professional has a prescription to collect a 24-hour urine specimen from a client. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional take during this procedure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time. During a 24-hour urine collection, the first voided urine is discarded to ensure the test starts with an empty bladder. The specimen should be kept chilled, not at room temperature, to prevent bacterial growth. The last voided specimen is not discarded because it contributes to the total volume collected, so choice C is incorrect. Discarding the specimen and noting the start time is essential for accurate results in a timed quantitative determination like a 24-hour urine collection.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who develops marked edema and a low urine output as a result of heart failure. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In heart failure with marked edema and low urine output, the nurse can expect the provider to order Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts quickly to remove excess fluid from the body, making it an appropriate choice for this patient's condition. Digoxin is used to improve heart function but does not directly address fluid overload. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that is not as potent as Furosemide in managing acute fluid retention. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is typically used in heart failure for its aldosterone-blocking effects and not for immediate fluid removal.

Similar Questions

What most likely led to the 67-year-old woman who lives alone tripping on a rug in her home and fracturing her hip?
A child who weighs 10 kg will begin taking oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The liquid preparation contains 40 mg of TMP and 200 mg of SMX per 5 mL. The nurse determines that the child’s dose should be 8 mg of TMP and 40 mg of SMX/kg/day divided into two doses. Which order for this child is correct?
A nurse administers scopolamine as prescribed to a client in preparation for surgery. For which side effect of this medication does the nurse monitor the client?
The healthcare provider is assessing the client's use of medications. Which of the following medications may cause a complication with the treatment plan of a client with diabetes?
In a 46-year-old female client admitted for acute renal failure secondary to diabetes and hypertension, which test is the best indicator of adequate glomerular filtration?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses