HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. After teaching a client with bacterial cystitis who is prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium), the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will not take this drug with food or milk.
- B. If I suspect pregnancy, I will discontinue the drug.
- C. An orange color in my urine should not alarm me.
- D. I will consume two glasses of cranberry juice daily.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Phenazopyridine commonly discolors urine to a deep reddish orange, which can be mistaken for blood. It is important for the client to understand that this color change is an expected side effect and should not be a cause for alarm. Additionally, the urine can stain clothing. There are no dietary restrictions or precautions related to food or milk intake while taking phenazopyridine. Stopping the medication if suspecting pregnancy is not necessary as phenazopyridine is safe to use during pregnancy. Drinking cranberry juice is not directly related to the use of phenazopyridine and is not a specific instruction given for managing bacterial cystitis.
2. Laboratory findings indicate that a client's serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
- B. Prepare to administer a glucose-insulin-potassium replacement.
- C. Change the plan of care to include hourly urinary output measurement.
- D. Instruct the client to increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. The immediate action the nurse should take is to inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement. Option B, preparing to administer glucose-insulin-potassium replacement, is not the first-line intervention; it may be considered in specific situations but requires a healthcare provider's prescription. Option C, changing the plan of care to include hourly urinary output measurement, is not the priority when managing critically low potassium levels. Option D, instructing the client to increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods, is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate intervention is needed to address the dangerously low potassium level.
3. The nurse is collecting information from a client with chronic pancreatitis who reports persistent gnawing abdominal pain. To help the client manage the pain, which assessment data is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Presence and activity of bowel sounds
- B. Color and consistency of feces
- C. Eating patterns and dietary intake
- D. Level and amount of physical activity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In chronic pancreatitis, managing abdominal pain is crucial, and assessing the client's eating patterns and dietary intake is essential. Dietary modifications can help alleviate symptoms and reduce the workload on the pancreas. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to pain management in chronic pancreatitis. Bowel sounds, fecal characteristics, and physical activity may provide important information in other conditions but are not the priority in this scenario.
4. A client is scheduled to undergo computerized tomography (CT) with contrast for evaluation of an abdominal mass. The nurse should tell the client that:
- A. The test may be painful
- B. The test takes 2 to 3 hours
- C. Food and fluids are not allowed for 4 hours after the test
- D. Dye is injected and may cause a warm flushing sensation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A contrast-aided CT scan involves the injection of dye to enhance the images obtained. The dye may cause a warm flushing sensation when injected, which is a common side effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. CT with contrast is generally not a painful procedure, the duration of the test does not usually take 2 to 3 hours, and restrictions on food and fluids are typically before the test, not afterward.
5. In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, what does Stage I indicate?
- A. Involvement of a single lymph node.
- B. Involvement of two or more lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm.
- C. Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm.
- D. Involvement of diffuse disease of one or more extralymphatic organs.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, Stage I signifies the involvement of a single lymph node. This stage indicates localized disease with the disease being limited to a single lymph node or a group of adjacent nodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe more extensive involvement of lymph nodes, both sides of the diaphragm, or extralymphatic organs, which would correspond to higher stages in the staging system.
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