Nursing Elites

1. In a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which of the following interventions is most important?

• A. Encouraging the patient to stop smoking.
• B. Administering bronchodilators.
• C. Monitoring oxygen saturation.
• D. Providing nutritional support.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation is the most important intervention in a patient with COPD because it helps assess the adequacy of oxygenation. In COPD, patients often have compromised lung function, leading to decreased oxygen levels in the blood. Monitoring oxygen saturation allows healthcare providers to promptly identify and address any potential hypoxemia, which is vital in managing COPD exacerbations. While encouraging the patient to stop smoking (Choice A) is critical for long-term management, monitoring oxygen saturation takes precedence in the immediate care of a COPD patient. Administering bronchodilators (Choice B) and providing nutritional support (Choice D) are important aspects of managing COPD but are secondary to monitoring oxygen saturation, which directly impacts the patient's oxygenation status.

2. After delegating to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) the task of completing a bladder scan examination for a client, the nurse evaluates the UAP’s performance. Which action by the UAP indicates the nurse must provide additional instructions when delegating this task?

• A. Selecting the female icon for all female clients and the male icon for all male clients
• B. Explaining to the client, 'This test measures the amount of urine in your bladder.'
• C. Applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and cleaning it after use
• D. Taking at least two readings using the aiming icon to position the scanning head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the UAP should select the female icon for women who have not had a hysterectomy to allow the scanner to subtract the volume of the uterus from readings. If a woman has had a hysterectomy, the UAP should choose the male icon. Choice B is incorrect as it is essential for the UAP to explain the procedure to the client to ensure understanding. Choice C is incorrect because applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and cleaning it after use are appropriate actions. Choice D is incorrect as it is necessary for the UAP to take at least two readings using the aiming icon to position the scanning head accurately for an effective bladder scan examination.

3. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with a history of urinary incontinence who presents with extreme dry mouth, constipation, and an inability to void. Which question should the nurse ask first?

• A. Are you drinking plenty of water?
• B. What medications are you taking?
• C. Have you tried laxatives or enemas?
• D. Has this type of thing ever happened before?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of dry mouth, constipation, and inability to void are indicative of anticholinergic side effects, which can be caused by medications like propantheline (Pro-Banthine) commonly used to treat incontinence. The first question the nurse should ask is about the client's medications to determine if they are taking anticholinergic drugs. This information is crucial as it can help differentiate between a simple side effect or a potential overdose. Asking about water intake (Choice A) may be relevant later but is not the priority in this situation. Questioning about laxatives or enemas (Choice C) and past occurrences (Choice D) are not as pertinent initially as identifying the client's current medication status.

4. In a patient with chronic kidney disease, which of the following is a common electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia.
• B. Hypokalemia.
• C. Hypernatremia.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance in chronic kidney disease. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys' reduced function leads to the decreased excretion of potassium, resulting in elevated serum potassium levels. This can be dangerous as hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypokalemia (Choice B) is less common in chronic kidney disease as the impaired kidneys tend to retain potassium. Hypernatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen in conditions such as dehydration, not primarily in chronic kidney disease. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is also possible in chronic kidney disease but is less common compared to hyperkalemia.

5. A client with cardiovascular disease is scheduled to receive a daily dose of furosemide (Lasix). Which potassium level would cause the nurse to contact the physician before administering the dose?

• A. 3.0 mEq/L
• B. 3.8 mEq/L
• C. 4.2 mEq/L
• D. 5.1 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The normal serum potassium level in adults ranges from 3.5 to 5.1 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is low, indicating hypokalemia and necessitating physician notification before administering furosemide, a loop diuretic that can further lower potassium levels. Potassium levels of 3.8 and 4.2 mEq/L are within the normal range, while a level of 5.1 mEq/L is high (hyperkalemia), but the critical value in this case is the low potassium level that requires immediate attention to prevent potential complications.

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