in a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd which of the following interventions is most important
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. In a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which of the following interventions is most important?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation is the most important intervention in a patient with COPD because it helps assess the adequacy of oxygenation. In COPD, patients often have compromised lung function, leading to decreased oxygen levels in the blood. Monitoring oxygen saturation allows healthcare providers to promptly identify and address any potential hypoxemia, which is vital in managing COPD exacerbations. While encouraging the patient to stop smoking (Choice A) is critical for long-term management, monitoring oxygen saturation takes precedence in the immediate care of a COPD patient. Administering bronchodilators (Choice B) and providing nutritional support (Choice D) are important aspects of managing COPD but are secondary to monitoring oxygen saturation, which directly impacts the patient's oxygenation status.

2. During a paracentesis procedure on a client with abdominal ascites, into which position would the nurse assist the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a paracentesis procedure for a client with abdominal ascites, the nurse should assist the client into an upright position. Placing the client upright allows the intestines to float posteriorly, reducing the risk of intestinal laceration during catheter insertion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a supine, left side-lying, or right side-lying position would not provide the same benefit of intestinal mobility and protection during the procedure.

3. Which of the following is a common complication of immobility?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Pressure ulcers. Immobility can lead to pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on the skin, especially over bony prominences. Muscle hypertrophy (Choice A) is not a common complication of immobility; instead, muscle atrophy is more likely to occur due to disuse. Bone fractures (Choice C) can result from trauma but are not directly associated with immobility unless there is a fall or accident. Joint stiffness (Choice D) can develop due to lack of movement but is not as common or severe as pressure ulcers in cases of prolonged immobility.

4. A healthcare professional has a prescription to collect a 24-hour urine specimen from a client. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional take during this procedure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time. During a 24-hour urine collection, the first voided urine is discarded to ensure the test starts with an empty bladder. The specimen should be kept chilled, not at room temperature, to prevent bacterial growth. The last voided specimen is not discarded because it contributes to the total volume collected, so choice C is incorrect. Discarding the specimen and noting the start time is essential for accurate results in a timed quantitative determination like a 24-hour urine collection.

5. When preparing a client who has had a total laryngectomy for discharge, what instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial instruction for a client who has had a total laryngectomy is to carry a medic alert card stating that they are a total neck breather. This is important because if they experience a cardiac arrest, mouth-to-neck breathing may be required. Choice A about carrying suction equipment is not the most critical as the client may not always need it. Choice B is not as essential as having a medic alert card. Choice D is not directly related to the client's safety due to their laryngectomy.

Similar Questions

A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with glomerulonephritis. The client’s glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 40 mL/min as measured by a 24-hour creatinine clearance. How should the nurse interpret this finding? (Select all that apply.)
The healthcare provider is assessing a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?
The patient weighs 75 kg and is receiving IV fluids at a rate of 50 mL/hour, having consumed 100 mL orally in the past 24 hours. What action will the nurse take?
A client is hospitalized in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI) and is receiving tube feedings. The nurse is teaching the client’s spouse about the kidney-specific formulation for the enteral solution compared to standard formulas. What components should be discussed in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)
A client with a history of type 1 diabetes Mellitus (DM) and asthma is readmitted to the unit for the third time in two months with a current fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 325mg/dl (18mmol/L SI). The client describes to the nurse not understanding why the blood glucose level continues to be out of control. Which interventions should the nurse implement?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses