the nurse is providing care for a client with severe anemia which assessment finding requires immediate intervention
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe anemia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical sign in severe anemia as it indicates inadequate oxygenation, which can be life-threatening. Immediate intervention is necessary to address this condition. Pale skin (choice A) is a common finding in anemia but not as urgent as shortness of breath. Increased heart rate (choice B) is a compensatory mechanism in anemia to maintain oxygen delivery and is important but not as urgent as addressing inadequate oxygenation. Fatigue (choice D) is a common symptom in anemia but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation like shortness of breath does.

2. Which of these findings would the nurse more closely associate with anemia in a 10-month-old infant?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pale mucous membranes, such as those of the eyelids and lips, are a classic sign of anemia in infants. Anemia leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, resulting in tissue hypoxia, which can manifest as pale mucosa. Choice A, a hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL, is within the normal range for a 10-month-old infant and would not necessarily indicate anemia. Choice C, hypoactivity, is a non-specific finding and can be present in various conditions, not specifically anemia. Choice D, a heart rate between 140 to 160, is within the normal range for an infant and is not a specific finding associated with anemia.

3. A client with pneumonia is receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment and the client's condition is improving. Monitoring the white blood cell count is a more objective indicator of the body's response to the antibiotics. Choices A, C, and D may also be positive signs, but they are less specific and may vary among individuals. Respiratory rate alone may not be sufficient to indicate improvement, as other factors can influence it. Energy levels and cough characteristics are subjective and may not always correlate with the effectiveness of antibiotic treatment.

4. When speaking with a group of teens about chemotherapy side effects for cancer, which side effect would the nurse expect this group to be more interested in discussing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Teens are more likely to be concerned with hair loss when discussing chemotherapy side effects because it is a visible and emotionally impactful side effect for them. While all the listed side effects are important to consider, hair loss can have a significant impact on a teenager's self-image and emotional well-being, making it a key point of interest for this age group. Mouth sores, fatigue, and diarrhea are also common side effects of chemotherapy, but they may not carry the same level of emotional weight and visibility as hair loss for teens.

5. After an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity, the healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour creatinine clearance test. Before starting the urine collection, the nurse noted that the client's serum creatinine was 0.3 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL is abnormally low, indicating potential issues with the interpretation of the creatinine clearance test. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider of this result before proceeding with the 24-hour urine collection. Checking urine output, instructing the client to increase fluid intake, or starting the urine collection without consulting the healthcare provider could lead to incorrect test results and misinterpretation of the client's renal function.

Similar Questions

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