Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a large bowel obstruction. What finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Absence of bowel sounds in all four quadrants.
• B. Abdominal distention with a firm, rigid abdomen.
• C. Frequent, small, liquid stools.
• D. Nausea and vomiting that worsens after meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Abdominal distention with a firm, rigid abdomen is a concerning sign that may indicate perforation, which requires immediate intervention. The rigidity suggests a complication of the large bowel obstruction. Absence of bowel sounds in all four quadrants, option A, is a common finding in a bowel obstruction but not as alarming as a rigid abdomen. Frequent, small, liquid stools, option C, are not typical findings in a large bowel obstruction; instead, constipation is more common. Nausea and vomiting that worsens after meals, option D, are also common symptoms of a bowel obstruction but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening complication like a perforation.

2. A 66-year-old woman is retiring and needs health insurance. To which agency should the employee health nurse refer her?

• A. Medicaid
• B. Medicare
• C. COBRA
• D. Private insurance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medicare. Medicare is the federal health insurance program for individuals aged 65 and older, so it is the most suitable option for the 66-year-old woman retiring. Medicaid (choice A) is a state and federally funded program for low-income individuals and families, not specifically for retirees. COBRA (choice C) allows employees to continue their employer-sponsored health insurance for a limited time after leaving employment. Private insurance (choice D) refers to health insurance plans purchased directly from private insurance companies.

3. A client with hypoglycemia is unresponsive. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer intravenous dextrose.
• B. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• C. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
• D. Prepare to administer oral glucose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer glucagon intramuscularly. In an unresponsive hypoglycemic client, administering glucagon intramuscularly is the priority action as it helps raise blood glucose levels quickly. Intravenous dextrose may be challenging to administer in an unresponsive client. Checking the client's blood glucose level is important but not the priority when the client is unresponsive. Preparing to administer oral glucose is not ideal for an unresponsive client as they may not be able to swallow.

4. A client with a prescription for DNR begins to manifest signs of impending death. After notifying the family of the client's status, what priority action should the nurse implement?

• A. Inform the healthcare provider
• B. Determine the client's need for pain medication
• C. Begin comfort measures
• D. Ensure all life-saving equipment is removed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority action for the nurse to implement in this scenario is to determine the client's need for pain medication. Ensuring that the client is comfortable and free from pain is crucial in end-of-life care, especially for a client with a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order. This action prioritizes the client's comfort and dignity in their final moments. While informing the healthcare provider and beginning comfort measures are important aspects of care, pain management takes precedence as the immediate priority. Removing life-saving equipment is not appropriate at this stage as it goes against the client's wishes stated in the DNR order.

5. An adult client is admitted to the emergency department after falling from a ladder. While waiting to have a CT scan, the client requests something for a severe headache. When the nurse offers a prescribed dose of acetaminophen, the client asks for something stronger. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication instead
• B. Explain the reason for using only non-narcotics
• C. Consult the healthcare provider about a stronger medication
• D. Administer a stronger medication as requested

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should explain the reason for using only non-narcotics. Following head trauma, non-narcotic medications such as acetaminophen are preferred to avoid masking symptoms of neurological changes, such as increased intracranial pressure, that could worsen after stronger pain medication. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it may not address the severity of the headache. Consulting the healthcare provider about a stronger medication (Choice C) is important, but the immediate need is to educate the client on the rationale for using non-narcotic medications first. Administering a stronger medication as requested (Choice D) could potentially mask important symptoms and should be avoided in this situation.

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