Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a group of clients with the help of a PN. Which nursing actions should the nurse assign to the PN?

• A. All of the above
• B. Administer a dose of insulin per sliding scale for a client with Type 2 DM
• C. Obtain postoperative vital signs for a client one day following unilateral knee arthroplasty
• D. Perform daily surgical dressing change for a client who had an abdominal hysterectomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: All of these tasks fall within the PN's scope of practice, which includes performing surgical dressing changes, taking postoperative vital signs, and administering insulin under supervision. The RN can delegate these tasks to the PN safely. Choice A is the correct answer because all the tasks mentioned are appropriate for delegation to a PN. Choice B should not be assigned to a PN as only RNs should administer insulin. Choice C is suitable for delegation to a PN as obtaining vital signs falls within their scope of practice. Choice D is also appropriate for delegation to a PN as performing surgical dressing changes is within their scope of practice.

2. A client with anemia is prescribed iron supplements. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Take iron supplements with meals to prevent stomach upset.
• B. Take iron supplements with milk to improve absorption.
• C. Expect black, tarry stools as a side effect of iron supplements.
• D. Take iron supplements with vitamin C to improve absorption.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Take iron supplements with vitamin C to improve absorption. Vitamin C enhances iron uptake, making it more bioavailable for the body. It is essential to avoid taking iron supplements with milk (choice B) as calcium-rich foods can hinder iron absorption. Taking iron supplements with meals (choice A) can help reduce stomach upset, but the optimal way to enhance absorption is with vitamin C. Black, tarry stools (choice C) are not a typical side effect of iron supplements and should be reported to the healthcare provider.

3. A young adult visits the clinic reporting symptoms associated with gastritis. Which information in the client's history is most important for the nurse to address in the teaching plan?

• A. Experiences occasional heartburn after eating spicy food
• B. Consumes 10 or more drinks of alcohol every weekend
• C. Reports frequent use of NSAIDs
• D. Has a history of peptic ulcers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive alcohol consumption is a major risk factor for gastritis and should be prioritized in the teaching plan. While spicy foods and NSAIDs can contribute to gastritis, alcohol consumption is the most significant factor that needs immediate lifestyle changes to prevent worsening of gastritis symptoms. Peptic ulcers, although relevant, are not as directly linked to exacerbating gastritis symptoms as alcohol consumption.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing
• C. Barrel chest appearance
• D. A pulse oximetry reading of 88%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute and the use of accessory muscles for breathing are concerning in COPD, they do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Similarly, a barrel chest appearance is a common finding in COPD and does not require urgent intervention compared to the critical need to address hypoxemia.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the medication immediately
• B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
• C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
• D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

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