HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with advanced chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload
- B. Increase sodium intake to improve fluid balance
- C. Increase potassium intake to prevent hypokalemia
- D. Increase protein intake to promote healing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.' Clients with advanced chronic kidney disease are at risk of fluid retention, which can lead to complications like fluid overload and hypertension. Therefore, it is crucial to instruct the client to limit fluid intake. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can exacerbate fluid retention and hypertension in clients with CKD. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake can be dangerous for clients with CKD who may already have elevated potassium levels. Choice D is incorrect because while protein intake may need to be adjusted for clients on hemodialysis, the priority in this case is managing fluid intake.
2. The healthcare provider is performing a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted. Which finding would call for immediate action by the healthcare provider?
- A. Breath sounds are audible bilaterally
- B. Mist is visible in the T-piece
- C. Pulse oximetry of 88
- D. Client is unable to verbalize
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88 indicates hypoxia, which is a serious condition requiring immediate intervention. Adequate oxygenation is crucial for the client's well-being. Choices A and B are normal findings after endotracheal intubation. Hearing bilateral breath sounds and seeing mist in the T-piece indicate proper functioning of the endotracheal tube. While choice D may indicate an issue with speaking due to the endotracheal tube, it is not as critical as the hypoxia indicated by the low pulse oximetry reading.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with an acute myocardial infarction. Which symptom requires immediate intervention?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Shortness of breath
- C. Severe chest pain
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Severe chest pain is the hallmark symptom of an acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) and requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Chest pain in this context is often described as crushing, pressure, tightness, or heaviness. It can radiate to the arms, neck, jaw, back, or upper abdomen. Other symptoms like dizziness, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting may also occur in acute myocardial infarction, but chest pain is the most critical sign requiring prompt action as it signifies inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle. Shortness of breath may indicate heart failure, while nausea and vomiting can be associated with the sympathetic response to myocardial infarction. Dizziness could result from decreased cardiac output but is not as specific to myocardial infarction as severe chest pain.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Which of the following interventions is a priority to maintain client safety?
- A. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours
- B. Check the tube placement before each feeding
- C. Secure the tube to the client's nose with tape
- D. Keep the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the correct placement of a nasogastric tube before each feeding is essential to prevent aspiration and ensure that the tube is properly positioned in the stomach or intestine. This action is a priority to maintain client safety. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours is important for tube patency but is not the priority over verifying placement. Securing the tube with tape and keeping the head of the bed elevated are crucial but are considered secondary measures compared to confirming the correct tube placement.
5. When monitoring tissue perfusion following an above the knee amputation (AKA), which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Evaluate the closest proximal pulse.
- B. Observe the color and amount of wound drainage.
- C. Observe for swelling around the stump.
- D. Assess the skin elasticity of the stump.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Evaluating the closest proximal pulse is essential when monitoring tissue perfusion post-amputation. This pulse provides crucial information about the circulation and perfusion to the limb. Observing the color and amount of wound drainage (Choice B) is more related to wound healing assessment rather than tissue perfusion. Observing for swelling around the stump (Choice C) may indicate inflammation or infection but is not the most direct assessment of tissue perfusion. Assessing skin elasticity of the stump (Choice D) is important for skin integrity but does not directly reflect tissue perfusion.
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