a client receiving heparin therapy develops sudden chest pain and dyspnea what should the nurse do first
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. A client receiving heparin therapy develops sudden chest pain and dyspnea. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed. These interventions help relieve dyspnea and chest pain, which can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism or other complications during heparin therapy. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not the initial priority in this situation as the client's symptoms are not suggestive of angina. Assessing for bleeding (Choice C) is important but not the first action needed to address chest pain and dyspnea. Administering albuterol (Choice D) is not indicated unless there are specific respiratory issues requiring it, which are not described in the scenario.

2. A client with tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged on isoniazid and rifampin. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to use a disposable mask when in contact with others. TB is highly contagious, and wearing a mask can help prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A is important but not the priority as using a mask directly impacts public health. Choice B is related to a potential side effect of isoniazid, peripheral neuropathy, but immediate healthcare provider notification is not required. Choice D is relevant due to the potential hepatotoxicity of isoniazid and rifampin, but it is not the priority instruction in this scenario.

3. A client is being prepared for surgery and has been placed on NPO status. Which of the following is the nurse's priority assessment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Monitoring the client's compliance with NPO status is the priority assessment. Ensuring the client remains NPO (nothing by mouth) is crucial to reduce the risk of aspiration during surgery. Assessing the client's understanding of the procedure is important but not the priority at this moment. Checking vital signs is also essential but ensuring NPO status takes precedence for patient safety. Ensuring the client's consent form is signed is necessary but not the priority assessment compared to maintaining NPO status.

4. A client with cirrhosis is receiving spironolactone. What electrolyte level should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Monitoring potassium levels closely is essential because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Sodium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Calcium and magnesium levels are also not directly impacted by spironolactone, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

5. A client with hyperparathyroidism is preparing for surgery. Which preoperative lab finding is most important to report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated serum calcium. In hyperparathyroidism, elevated calcium levels can lead to complications such as kidney stones, bone pain, and fractures. During surgery, high calcium levels can affect neuromuscular function, cardiac function, and blood clotting. Therefore, it is crucial to report elevated serum calcium levels preoperatively to prevent potential surgical complications. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with hyperparathyroidism and are less likely to impact the surgical outcome in this scenario.

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