Nursing Elites

1. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should give?

• A. Take the medication with aspirin to improve effectiveness.
• B. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables to support the medication.
• C. Avoid foods high in potassium to reduce bleeding risk.
• D. Avoid alcohol and over-the-counter medications without consulting the provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking warfarin should avoid alcohol and over-the-counter medications without consulting their healthcare provider, as these can interact with warfarin and increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin, in particular, can exacerbate this risk. Choice A is incorrect because taking warfarin with aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as while green leafy vegetables contain vitamin K which can interact with warfarin, it is more important to maintain a consistent intake rather than increase it. Choice C is incorrect because foods high in potassium do not directly impact the bleeding risk associated with warfarin.

2. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Monitor blood glucose levels every 6 hours.
• B. Monitor for signs of infection.
• C. Encourage increased oral fluid intake.
• D. Check the client's temperature every 4 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone, the nurse's priority action is to monitor for signs of infection. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of infection allows for early detection and prompt intervention. Monitoring blood glucose levels may be important in clients receiving corticosteroids for prolonged periods, but it is not the priority in this case. Encouraging increased oral fluid intake is generally beneficial but not the priority over monitoring for infection. Checking the client's temperature is important but not the priority action compared to monitoring for signs of infection.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of schizophrenia who reports feeling sedated after starting a new antipsychotic medication. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Reassure the client that sedation will subside with continued use
• B. Instruct the client to take the medication at bedtime
• C. Teach the client to take the medication with food
• D. Consult the healthcare provider to reduce the dosage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime is the most appropriate intervention. Taking antipsychotic medications at bedtime can help reduce the impact of sedation on the client's daily activities. This approach allows the client to sleep through the sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect because just reassuring the client may not address the immediate issue of sedation. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food does not directly address the sedation concern. Choice D is not the first-line intervention; adjusting the dosage should be done by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's response to the medication.

4. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder has been referred to a local boarding home for consideration for placement. The social worker telephoned the hospital unit for information about the client's mental status and adjustment. The appropriate response of the nurse should be which of these statements?

• A. I am sorry. Referral information can only be provided by the client's health care providers.
• B. I can never give any information out by telephone. How do I know who you are?
• C. Since this is a referral, I can give you this information.
• D. I need to get the client's written consent before I release any information to you.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I need to get the client's written consent before I release any information to you." In this scenario, the nurse must obtain the client's written consent before disclosing any information to the social worker. This process ensures compliance with privacy laws like HIPAA, which are designed to protect client confidentiality. Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the need for consent. Choice B is incorrect as it is unprofessional and does not focus on obtaining consent. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests information can be shared without consent, which goes against privacy laws.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site should the nurse select?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal muscle
• C. Vastus lateralis muscle
• D. Dorsogluteal muscle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults because it is free from major blood vessels and nerves, reducing the risk of injury. The deltoid muscle can be used for smaller volumes of medication, primarily vaccines. The vastus lateralis muscle is commonly used in infants, toddlers, and young children. The dorsogluteal muscle site is discouraged due to its proximity to the sciatic nerve, increasing the risk of injury or nerve damage.

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