Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
• C. Assess the client for signs of infection.
• D. Monitor the client for signs of bleeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit.' When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin, the nurse's priority action is to monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring these lab values helps evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin in treating anemia. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (choice B) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client for signs of infection (choice C) is important but not the priority related to the prescription of erythropoietin. Monitoring the client for signs of bleeding (choice D) is relevant but not the priority action when erythropoietin is prescribed.

2. The nurse is caring for a seated client experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Which actions should the nurse implement?

• A. Place a padded tongue depressor in the client's mouth
• B. Restrain the client and attempt to stop the seizure
• C. Begin CPR immediately
• D. Loosen restrictive clothing and ease the client to the floor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse should loosen restrictive clothing to prevent injury and ease the client to the floor to ensure safety. Placing any object, such as a tongue depressor, in the client's mouth is contraindicated as it may cause harm. Restraint should not be used as it can lead to injury. Beginning CPR is not indicated during a seizure unless the client experiences cardiac arrest, which is a rare complication of seizures.

3. A client is receiving lactulose for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. To evaluate the therapeutic response, which assessment should the nurse obtain?

• A. Percussion of the abdomen.
• B. Blood glucose level.
• C. Serum electrolytes.
• D. Level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Level of consciousness. Lactulose is used to reduce ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, which can affect brain function. Therefore, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic response. Changes in consciousness can indicate the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they are important assessments in various conditions, they are not specifically related to evaluating the therapeutic response of lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy.

4. A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client’s urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?

• A. This is a normal finding after surgery.
• B. Oliguria signals tubular necrosis related to hypoperfusion.
• C. Oliguria signals dehydration and fluid loss.
• D. Urine output of 25 ml/hour is an expected finding after splenectomy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.

5. A client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10. What does this score indicate?

• A. Mild impairment
• B. Moderate impairment
• C. Severe impairment
• D. Normal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 falls into the range of moderate impairment, indicating the need for further assessment and monitoring. A GCS score of 10 suggests that the client is moderately impaired neurologically. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a GCS score of 10 does not indicate mild impairment, severe impairment, or normal neurological status, respectively.

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