HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit.
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
- C. Assess the client for signs of infection.
- D. Monitor the client for signs of bleeding.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit.' When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin, the nurse's priority action is to monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring these lab values helps evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin in treating anemia. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (choice B) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client for signs of infection (choice C) is important but not the priority related to the prescription of erythropoietin. Monitoring the client for signs of bleeding (choice D) is relevant but not the priority action when erythropoietin is prescribed.
2. A client with emphysema reports shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy.
- B. Assess the client’s respiratory rate and effort.
- C. Prepare the client for intubation.
- D. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Shortness of breath in a client with emphysema may indicate respiratory distress. Assessing the client’s respiratory rate and effort is the first priority to determine the severity of the distress and guide appropriate interventions. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice A) could be necessary, but assessing the client first is crucial to tailor the intervention. Intubation (Choice C) is an invasive procedure that is not the initial priority. Increasing oxygen flow rate (Choice D) should only be done after a thorough assessment to avoid potential harm.
3. A client is admitted with an epidural hematoma after a skateboarding accident. How should the nurse differentiate the vascular source of intracranial bleeding?
- A. Monitor for clear fluid leakage from the nose.
- B. Assess for rapid onset of decreased level of consciousness.
- C. Check for bruising around the head and neck.
- D. Assess for changes in pupil size and reactivity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An epidural hematoma is characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms, including decreased level of consciousness, due to arterial bleeding, which differentiates it from other types of intracranial hemorrhage. Monitoring for clear fluid leakage from the nose (choice A) is more indicative of a basilar skull fracture and cerebrospinal fluid leak. Checking for bruising around the head and neck (choice C) is more suggestive of soft tissue injuries or facial fractures. Assessing for changes in pupil size and reactivity (choice D) is essential in evaluating traumatic brain injuries, but it is not specific to differentiating the vascular source of intracranial bleeding in an epidural hematoma.
4. What pathophysiological events occur sequentially in the development of atherosclerosis?
- A. Foam cells release growth factors.
- B. Smooth muscle grows over fatty streaks creating fibrous plaques.
- C. Macrophages consume low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and create foam cells.
- D. Arterial endothelium injury causes inflammation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence of pathophysiological events in the development of atherosclerosis starts with arterial endothelium injury causing inflammation. This inflammation triggers the formation of foam cells by macrophages consuming low-density lipoprotein (LDL). Subsequently, smooth muscle grows over fatty streaks, creating fibrous plaques. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate chronological order of events in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis.
5. A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. What side effect should the nurse inform the client about?
- A. Report orange-colored urine as a sign of kidney dysfunction.
- B. Expect red-orange discoloration of urine as a harmless side effect.
- C. Monitor for signs of liver toxicity.
- D. Call the healthcare provider if vision changes occur.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect, but clients should be informed beforehand to prevent alarm. Choice A is incorrect as orange-colored urine is not a sign of kidney dysfunction related to rifampin. Choice C is incorrect because rifampin is more commonly associated with liver toxicity rather than kidney dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as vision changes are not a typical side effect of rifampin.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access