Nursing Elites

1. A client in labor is experiencing late decelerations in fetal heart rate. What intervention should the nurse perform first?

• A. Reposition the client onto her left side.
• B. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Prepare for an emergency cesarean section.
• D. Increase IV fluid administration to improve perfusion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Late decelerations indicate fetal distress due to compromised placental perfusion. Repositioning the client onto her left side is the priority intervention as it can increase blood flow to the placenta, improving fetal oxygenation. Applying oxygen via nasal cannula (choice B) can be the next step after repositioning if late decelerations persist. Emergency cesarean section (choice C) is not the initial action for late decelerations unless other interventions are ineffective. Increasing IV fluid administration (choice D) is not the first-line intervention for late decelerations; repositioning takes precedence to address the underlying cause.

2. The nurse is caring for a 24-month-old toddler who has sensory sensitivity, difficulty engaging in social interactions, and has not yet spoken two-word phrases. Which assessment should the nurse administer?

• A. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test
• B. The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT)
• C. Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence
• D. Denver Developmental Screening Test

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT) is specifically designed to screen for autism spectrum disorders in young children. It is appropriate for this child, given the signs of social and communication delays. The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (Choice A) assesses receptive vocabulary and may not capture the social and communication aspects seen in autism. The Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (Choice C) measures cognitive ability and may not address the social and communication delays. The Denver Developmental Screening Test (Choice D) is a broad developmental assessment tool, but the M-CHAT is more specific to screening for autism in this case.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which action is most important for the nurse to take before starting the transfusion?

• A. Administer pre-transfusion medication
• B. Ensure the client has an adequate fluid intake
• C. Monitor the client's vital signs
• D. Verify the blood type with another nurse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Verifying the blood type with another nurse is critical before starting a blood transfusion to prevent a potentially life-threatening transfusion reaction. This step ensures that the client receives the correct blood product. Administering pre-transfusion medication, ensuring adequate fluid intake, and monitoring vital signs are important steps during the transfusion process, but verifying the blood type is the most crucial step to ensure patient safety.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute.
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
• C. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute.
• D. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute. Bradycardia is a critical assessment finding in a client prescribed with digoxin, as it can indicate digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia is a known side effect of digoxin, and if left unaddressed, it can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or cardiac arrest. Both choices B, heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and C, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, fall within normal ranges and do not raise immediate concerns. Choice D, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, is also within normal limits and does not indicate digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should report bradycardia promptly to prevent further complications.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach.
• B. Report any signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Monitor for changes in blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so it is crucial for the client to promptly report any bleeding-related symptoms for evaluation by a healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach, is more relevant for clients taking warfarin to maintain consistent vitamin K intake. Warfarin should be taken with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for changes in blood pressure is not directly related to warfarin therapy; instead, the focus should be on monitoring for signs of bleeding.

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