the healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant im every 8 hours the vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mgml after reconstitution
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant, IM, every 8 hours. The vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mg/ml after reconstitution. How many ml should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 35 mg of celtazidime from a 100 mg/ml solution, the nurse should give 0.4 ml of the reconstituted celtazidime solution. The calculation is 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml, but since the vial is 500 mg, the answer is 0.35 ml * (500 mg / 100 mg) = 0.4 ml. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

2. To auscultate for a carotid bruit, where should the nurse place the stethoscope?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To auscultate for a carotid bruit, the nurse should place the stethoscope at the base of the neck, near the carotid artery. A carotid bruit is an abnormal sound that indicates turbulent blood flow in the carotid artery, potentially due to arterial narrowing or atherosclerosis. Placing the stethoscope above the clavicle, over the sternum, or over the trachea would not provide the nurse with the optimal location to assess for carotid artery abnormalities.

3. During an initial assessment, a healthcare provider notes that a client has elevated blood pressure. Which of the following findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease because it increases the strain on the arteries, leading to potential damage and a higher risk of developing coronary artery disease. Elevated HDL cholesterol (Choice A) is actually considered beneficial as it helps reduce the risk of heart disease. Low LDL cholesterol (Choice B) is also beneficial as high levels of LDL are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Low triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not typically considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease.

4. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice, fatigue, and a distended abdomen. Which laboratory result is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a serious complication. Monitoring ammonia levels is crucial to assess for changes in mental status and initiate treatment if needed. White blood cell count (choice B) is not the most important parameter to monitor in this scenario as it does not directly relate to the complications of cirrhosis. Albumin level (choice C) and hemoglobin level (choice D) are also important in cirrhosis, but in this case, monitoring ammonia level takes precedence due to its direct association with hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A client is being discharged following a cystectomy and urinary diversion. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to a client following a cystectomy and urinary diversion is to report any signs of cloudy urine output. Cloudy urine may indicate infection, which is a serious concern in clients with a urinary diversion. Instructing the client to report any signs of infection immediately is crucial to prevent complications. Avoiding heavy lifting is important for postoperative recovery but not as critical as identifying a potential infection. Drinking an adequate amount of water is generally beneficial for health but not the most crucial instruction in this scenario. While monitoring for signs of infection at the surgical site is essential, cloudy urine is a more specific and immediate indicator of a potential problem in clients with urinary diversions.

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