HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. An adolescent with intellectual disability is admitted for refusing to complete oral hygiene. A behavior modification program is recommended. Which reinforcement is best?
- A. Unit tasks for each omitted teeth brushing.
- B. Candy for each successfully completed hygiene task.
- C. Privilege restriction for refusing hygiene tasks.
- D. Preferred activities or tokens for compliance.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best reinforcement strategy in this scenario is providing preferred activities or tokens for compliance. Positive reinforcement is effective in behavior modification programs for individuals with intellectual disabilities. Offering preferred activities or tokens serves as a reward for completing the desired behavior, in this case, oral hygiene tasks. Choices A, B, and C do not focus on reinforcing the desired behavior with positive incentives. Choice A does not provide a positive reinforcement for compliance but rather focuses on the omission of a task. Choice B uses candy, which may not be ideal for oral hygiene. Choice C involves punishment rather than positive reinforcement.
2. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Monitor the client's potassium levels closely.
- B. Assess for signs of hyperkalemia.
- C. Instruct the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Increase the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess for signs of hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Therefore, the nurse's priority intervention should be to assess the client for signs of hyperkalemia, such as muscle weakness, fatigue, and potentially dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels closely (choice A) is important but assessing for signs of hyperkalemia takes precedence. Instructing the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods (choice C) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in this case. Increasing the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of spironolactone.
3. The nurse has been teaching a client with congestive heart failure about proper nutrition. The selection of which lunch indicates the client has learned about sodium restriction?
- A. Cheese sandwich with a glass of 2% milk
- B. Sliced turkey sandwich and canned pineapple
- C. Cheeseburger and baked potato
- D. Mushroom pizza and ice cream
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A sliced turkey sandwich and canned pineapple are good choices for a client with congestive heart failure who is learning about sodium restriction. Turkey is generally lower in sodium compared to cheese, and canned fruits like pineapple typically have lower sodium content. Choices A, C, and D are less suitable as they contain higher levels of sodium, such as cheese, cheeseburger, baked potato, mushroom pizza, and ice cream, which are not ideal for a client needing to restrict sodium intake.
4. A client with cirrhosis is prescribed spironolactone to manage ascites. Which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Sodium
- B. Calcium
- C. Magnesium
- D. Potassium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not directly affected by spironolactone use for managing ascites in cirrhosis.
5. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted to the emergency room with acute weakness, palpitations, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?
- A. Recent compliance with prescribed medications.
- B. Sleep patterns during the previous few weeks.
- C. History of smoking over the past 6 months.
- D. Activity level prior to the onset of symptoms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recent compliance with prescribed medications. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts the management of the condition and could contribute to the current presentation. Ensuring that the client has been taking their prescribed medications can provide vital information to guide further treatment. Choices B, C, and D, although important in a comprehensive assessment, are not as immediately crucial as assessing medication compliance in this emergency situation.
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