Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent with intellectual disability is admitted for refusing to complete oral hygiene. A behavior modification program is recommended. Which reinforcement is best?

• A. Unit tasks for each omitted teeth brushing.
• B. Candy for each successfully completed hygiene task.
• C. Privilege restriction for refusing hygiene tasks.
• D. Preferred activities or tokens for compliance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best reinforcement strategy in this scenario is providing preferred activities or tokens for compliance. Positive reinforcement is effective in behavior modification programs for individuals with intellectual disabilities. Offering preferred activities or tokens serves as a reward for completing the desired behavior, in this case, oral hygiene tasks. Choices A, B, and C do not focus on reinforcing the desired behavior with positive incentives. Choice A does not provide a positive reinforcement for compliance but rather focuses on the omission of a task. Choice B uses candy, which may not be ideal for oral hygiene. Choice C involves punishment rather than positive reinforcement.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing difficulty breathing. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator via nebulizer.
• B. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed.
• D. Reposition the client to a side-lying position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing, increasing the client's oxygen flow rate is the priority intervention. This action helps to improve oxygenation and relieve shortness of breath. While bronchodilators and other medications may be necessary, providing immediate oxygen support is crucial. Elevating the head of the bed and repositioning the client can assist with breathing comfort but do not address the immediate need for improved oxygenation in COPD exacerbation.

3. A client is receiving IV fluid therapy for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's fluid status is improving?

• A. Urine output increases to 50 mL/hour
• B. Client reports feeling more thirsty
• C. Blood pressure decreases from 120/80 to 110/70
• D. Heart rate increases from 80 to 100 beats per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increase in urine output is a positive sign that the client's hydration status is improving. It indicates that the kidneys are functioning well and that fluid therapy is effective. Increased urine output helps to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Feeling more thirsty (choice B) is a sign of dehydration, not improvement. A decrease in blood pressure (choice C) and an increase in heart rate (choice D) are not typically indicative of improving fluid status during IV fluid therapy for dehydration.

4. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Auscultate lung sounds.
• D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.

5. A combination multi-drug cocktail is being considered for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500. Which nursing assessment of the client is most crucial in determining whether therapy should be initiated?

• A. Presence of viral symptoms
• B. Engages in high-risk behaviors
• C. Willingness to comply with complex drug schedules
• D. History of opportunistic infections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial nursing assessment in determining whether therapy should be initiated for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500 is the client's willingness to comply with complex drug schedules. Adherence to antiretroviral therapy is essential for its effectiveness. Assessing the client's willingness and ability to comply with the complex medication regimen is crucial to ensure successful treatment and prevent drug resistance. Choices A, B, and D, although important in the overall care of the client, are not as crucial as assessing the client's willingness to adhere to the prescribed drug regimen.

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