an adolescent with intellectual disability is admitted for refusing to complete oral hygiene a behavior modification program is recommended which rein
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. An adolescent with intellectual disability is admitted for refusing to complete oral hygiene. A behavior modification program is recommended. Which reinforcement is best?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best reinforcement strategy in this scenario is providing preferred activities or tokens for compliance. Positive reinforcement is effective in behavior modification programs for individuals with intellectual disabilities. Offering preferred activities or tokens serves as a reward for completing the desired behavior, in this case, oral hygiene tasks. Choices A, B, and C do not focus on reinforcing the desired behavior with positive incentives. Choice A does not provide a positive reinforcement for compliance but rather focuses on the omission of a task. Choice B uses candy, which may not be ideal for oral hygiene. Choice C involves punishment rather than positive reinforcement.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with a new diagnosis of hyperthyroidism. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In hyperthyroidism, there is an increase in metabolism, leading to symptoms such as increased appetite, weight loss, and heat intolerance. Therefore, the nurse should expect an increased appetite in a client with hyperthyroidism. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased heart rate and cold intolerance are more commonly associated with hypothyroidism, while weight gain is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism.

3. A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.

4. A client is admitted with a suspected gastrointestinal bleed. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dark, tarry stools indicate the presence of digested blood in the gastrointestinal tract, signifying a higher gastrointestinal bleed. This finding requires immediate intervention due to the potential severity of the bleed. Bright red blood in the vomit may indicate active bleeding but is not as concerning as digested blood. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate are common responses to bleeding but do not provide direct evidence of the source or severity of the bleed. Coffee ground emesis is indicative of partially digested blood and is a concern but not as urgent as dark, tarry stools.

5. A client has burns covering 40% of their total body surface area (TBSA). What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor the client's urinary output hourly. Clients with burns covering a large percentage of their total body surface area are at high risk for hypovolemia due to fluid loss. Monitoring urinary output is crucial because it helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, providing essential information about the client's hemodynamic status. Applying cool, moist dressings (choice B) is important but not the priority over assessing fluid balance. Administering pain medication (choice C) is essential for comfort but not the priority over monitoring for potential complications like hypovolemia. Administering IV fluids (choice D) is important to prevent hypovolemia, but monitoring urinary output should be the priority to guide fluid resuscitation.

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