Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the medication immediately
• B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
• C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
• D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

2. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote oxygenation by improving lung expansion
• C. To encourage use of accessory muscles for breathing
• D. To drain secretions and prevent aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.

3. The nurse reviews the diagnostic tests prescribed for a client with a positive skin test. Which subjective findings reported by the client support the diagnosis of tuberculosis?

• A. Mucopurulent cough and night sweats
• B. Fatigue and headache
• C. Persistent cough and weight gain
• D. Weight loss and fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A mucopurulent cough and night sweats are hallmark signs of active tuberculosis. These symptoms are key indicators of TB as the combination of a productive cough with night sweats is highly suggestive of the disease. Fatigue and headache (choice B) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in many conditions and are not specific to TB. Persistent cough and weight gain (choice C) are not typical findings in tuberculosis. Weight loss and fever (choice D) can be present in TB, but the specific combination of mucopurulent cough and night sweats is more specific to the diagnosis.

4. The nurse is caring for a 69-year-old client with a diagnosis of hyperglycemia. Which tasks could the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. Test blood sugar every 2 hours using Accu-Chek
• B. Review signs of hyperglycemia with the family and client
• C. Administer insulin if the blood sugar is elevated
• D. Measure the client's urine output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because measuring urine output is a task that falls within the UAP's scope of practice and does not require clinical decision-making. Choice A is incorrect because testing blood sugar using Accu-Chek involves interpreting results and possible adjustments, which require a licensed healthcare provider. Choice B is incorrect as discussing signs of hyperglycemia involves education and interpretation that should be done by a nurse. Choice C is incorrect since administering insulin is a high-risk task that necessitates precise dosing and monitoring, thus should not be delegated to UAP.

5. The healthcare worker is wearing PPE while caring for a client. When exiting the room, which PPE should be removed first?

• A. Gloves
• B. Face shield
• C. Mask
• D. Gown

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gloves should be removed first as they are most likely to be contaminated. This is followed by the gown, then face shield, and mask. Correct removal sequence helps prevent contamination. Removing gloves first reduces the risk of transferring pathogens from the gloves to other PPE or surfaces. Face shield and mask should be removed last as they protect mucous membranes from exposure to contaminants. Removing PPE in the correct sequence is crucial in preventing the spread of infections.

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