Nursing Elites

1. A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?

• A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
• B. No bowel movement since surgery.
• C. No appetite for breakfast.
• D. A positive Chvostek's sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute.
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
• C. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute.
• D. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute. Bradycardia is a critical assessment finding in a client prescribed with digoxin, as it can indicate digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia is a known side effect of digoxin, and if left unaddressed, it can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or cardiac arrest. Both choices B, heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and C, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, fall within normal ranges and do not raise immediate concerns. Choice D, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, is also within normal limits and does not indicate digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should report bradycardia promptly to prevent further complications.

3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with asthma. Which statement indicates the client understands how to use a rescue inhaler?

• A. I will use my rescue inhaler every morning to prevent asthma attacks.
• B. I should use my rescue inhaler when I start to experience wheezing.
• C. I will use my rescue inhaler when my peak flow meter reading is in the green zone.
• D. I will only use my rescue inhaler before going to bed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I should use my rescue inhaler when I start to experience wheezing.' A rescue inhaler is used during the onset of asthma symptoms, such as wheezing, to quickly open the airways. It is not intended for routine daily use or prevention, which is the role of a maintenance inhaler. Option A is incorrect because a rescue inhaler is not used for prevention but for immediate relief during an asthma attack. Option C is incorrect because the peak flow meter reading is used to monitor asthma control, not to determine when to use a rescue inhaler. Option D is incorrect because using a rescue inhaler only before going to bed does not address the need for immediate relief when wheezing or experiencing asthma symptoms.

4. A client has burns covering 40% of their total body surface area (TBSA). What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Monitor the client's urinary output hourly.
• B. Apply cool, moist dressings to the burned areas.
• C. Administer pain medication to reduce discomfort.
• D. Administer IV fluids to prevent hypovolemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor the client's urinary output hourly. Clients with burns covering a large percentage of their total body surface area are at high risk for hypovolemia due to fluid loss. Monitoring urinary output is crucial because it helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, providing essential information about the client's hemodynamic status. Applying cool, moist dressings (choice B) is important but not the priority over assessing fluid balance. Administering pain medication (choice C) is essential for comfort but not the priority over monitoring for potential complications like hypovolemia. Administering IV fluids (choice D) is important to prevent hypovolemia, but monitoring urinary output should be the priority to guide fluid resuscitation.

5. A client reports gastrointestinal upset after taking oral tetracycline. Which snack should the nurse recommend?

• A. Yogurt with fruit
• B. Toast with jelly
• C. Crackers with peanut butter
• D. Oatmeal with raisins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Toast with jelly. Tetracycline can cause gastrointestinal upset when taken with dairy products. Yogurt with fruit (Choice A) contains dairy, which can worsen the gastrointestinal upset. Crackers with peanut butter (Choice C) and oatmeal with raisins (Choice D) are also not the best choices as they may not be gentle enough on the stomach. Toast with jelly is a simple snack that does not contain dairy and is less likely to exacerbate the gastrointestinal upset.

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