Nursing Elites

1. After a lumbar puncture, a client reports a severe headache. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer a dose of acetaminophen.
• B. Elevate the head of the bed.
• C. Encourage the client to rest in a dark room.
• D. Administer caffeine to relieve the headache.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, a severe headache is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Elevating the head of the bed or having the client lie flat can reduce cerebrospinal fluid pressure and alleviate the headache. These positions help prevent further fluid loss and relieve discomfort. While acetaminophen or caffeine may help in relieving the headache, changing the client's position is the priority to address the underlying cause. Resting in a dark room may be beneficial for headache relief but is not the priority intervention compared to adjusting the position to manage cerebrospinal fluid pressure.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medication list for a client with heart failure. Which medication should the nurse question?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Digoxin
• C. Ibuprofen
• D. Carvedilol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), can cause fluid retention, which may worsen heart failure symptoms. It should be used with caution or avoided in clients with heart failure. Furosemide (choice A) is a diuretic commonly used in heart failure to reduce fluid overload. Digoxin (choice B) is a medication that helps the heart beat stronger and slower, often used in heart failure. Carvedilol (choice D) is a beta-blocker that is beneficial in heart failure management. Therefore, Ibuprofen is the medication that the nurse should question in this scenario.

3. While assessing a client who is admitted with heart failure and pulmonary edema, the nurse identifies dependent peripheral edema, an irregular heart rate, and a persistent cough that produces pink blood-tinged sputum. After initiating continuous telemetry and positioning the client, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer prescribed diuretics
• B. Prepare for intubation
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• D. Obtain sputum sample

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's cough producing pink, frothy sputum is indicative of pulmonary edema, which needs immediate treatment. Obtaining a sputum sample helps identify any infection that may be contributing to the pulmonary issues. Administering diuretics is essential in managing pulmonary edema but obtaining a sputum sample should take priority. Intubation may be necessary in severe cases but is not the initial intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to diagnose and treat the condition is crucial.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
• C. Assess the client for signs of infection.
• D. Monitor the client for signs of bleeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit.' When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin, the nurse's priority action is to monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring these lab values helps evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin in treating anemia. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (choice B) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client for signs of infection (choice C) is important but not the priority related to the prescription of erythropoietin. Monitoring the client for signs of bleeding (choice D) is relevant but not the priority action when erythropoietin is prescribed.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection to a thin, elderly client. What is the most appropriate site for the injection?

• A. Dorsal aspect of the upper arm.
• B. Upper outer thigh.
• C. Lower abdomen.
• D. Lateral aspect of the upper arm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the upper outer thigh. In thin, elderly clients, the upper outer thigh is a recommended site for subcutaneous injections due to the presence of adequate subcutaneous tissue and muscle mass. The dorsal aspect of the upper arm may not provide enough subcutaneous tissue for proper absorption of the medication. The lower abdomen is not ideal for thin individuals as it may lead to injection into muscle rather than subcutaneous tissue. The lateral aspect of the upper arm is also not a commonly recommended site for subcutaneous injections.

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