a client reports a severe headache after a lumbar puncture what is the nurses priority intervention
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. After a lumbar puncture, a client reports a severe headache. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, a severe headache is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Elevating the head of the bed or having the client lie flat can reduce cerebrospinal fluid pressure and alleviate the headache. These positions help prevent further fluid loss and relieve discomfort. While acetaminophen or caffeine may help in relieving the headache, changing the client's position is the priority to address the underlying cause. Resting in a dark room may be beneficial for headache relief but is not the priority intervention compared to adjusting the position to manage cerebrospinal fluid pressure.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-sodium diet. What is the nurse's priority teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.' For a client with chronic kidney disease, limiting sodium intake is crucial because it helps prevent fluid retention and reduces the workload on the kidneys. Choice A, 'Choose fresh fruits and vegetables,' is generally a healthy dietary recommendation but not the priority when focusing on a low-sodium diet. Choice B, 'Restrict fluid intake to 1500 mL per day,' is important but secondary to limiting sodium intake. Choice D, 'Increase potassium intake to prevent hypokalemia,' is not the priority teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease on a low-sodium diet.

3. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Injections over 1 mL should be split into two separate injections for young children. This helps in preventing discomfort, ensuring proper absorption, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Giving the medication in one injection of 2.0 ml might be too much for a 2-year-old child. Choices B and D are incorrect because the dorsal gluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential injury, and changing the form of medication might not be necessary if the volume can be adjusted. Choice C is unnecessary as splitting the dose into two injections is the appropriate action.

4. A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication with meals. Which rationale should the nurse provide for taking the medication with food?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'It reduces gastrointestinal upset.' Levodopa/carbidopa can cause nausea and other gastrointestinal side effects. Taking the medication with food can help reduce these side effects and improve the client's comfort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication with food does not primarily enhance effectiveness, improve absorption, or prevent orthostatic hypotension. The main reason for advising to take the medication with meals is to minimize gastrointestinal upset.

5. A client is diagnosed with tuberculosis and is placed on isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin). The nurse should emphasize the importance of

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The importance of taking medication as prescribed. In the treatment of tuberculosis, adherence to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial to effectively manage the infection and prevent the development of drug resistance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because bronchodilators, salt intake, and sunlight exposure are not directly related to the treatment of tuberculosis with isoniazid and rifampin.

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