a client reports a severe headache after a lumbar puncture what is the nurses priority intervention
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. After a lumbar puncture, a client reports a severe headache. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, a severe headache is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Elevating the head of the bed or having the client lie flat can reduce cerebrospinal fluid pressure and alleviate the headache. These positions help prevent further fluid loss and relieve discomfort. While acetaminophen or caffeine may help in relieving the headache, changing the client's position is the priority to address the underlying cause. Resting in a dark room may be beneficial for headache relief but is not the priority intervention compared to adjusting the position to manage cerebrospinal fluid pressure.

2. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should give?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking warfarin should avoid alcohol and over-the-counter medications without consulting their healthcare provider, as these can interact with warfarin and increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin, in particular, can exacerbate this risk. Choice A is incorrect because taking warfarin with aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as while green leafy vegetables contain vitamin K which can interact with warfarin, it is more important to maintain a consistent intake rather than increase it. Choice C is incorrect because foods high in potassium do not directly impact the bleeding risk associated with warfarin.

3. The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a liver transplant client. Which instruction is most important to include in this plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical instruction to include in the discharge teaching plan for a liver transplant client is to take immunosuppressant medications as prescribed. This is vital to prevent organ rejection and ensure the success of the transplant. While ensuring daily follow-up with the healthcare provider is important for monitoring progress, avoiding crowds for the first two months after surgery helps reduce the risk of infections but is not as crucial as medication adherence. Returning to work in three months is a consideration but not the most important aspect immediately post-transplant.

4. A client with chronic renal failure has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. The correct priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Hyperkalemia requires prompt intervention to lower potassium levels and prevent complications. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice A) would worsen the condition. Administering calcium gluconate (Choice C) is a treatment option but is not the nurse's priority action. Restricting the client's potassium intake (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the immediate priority when facing a critical potassium level.

5. A client has been given a prescription for tetracycline HCL (Sumycin). The nurse should emphasize the client to

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for signs of yellowing skin or eyes.' Tetracycline can cause hepatotoxicity, leading to jaundice which may present as yellowing of the skin or eyes. This is a serious side effect that the nurse should emphasize to the client. Choice A is incorrect because tetracycline should generally be taken on an empty stomach, not with food or milk. Choice B is also incorrect as tetracycline can cause photosensitivity, but it is not directly related to yellowing skin or eyes. Choice D is incorrect because tetracycline can cause yellow-brown discoloration of the teeth, but this is usually seen in children under 8 years of age, not a common concern for adult clients.

Similar Questions

A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with an infected foot ulcer. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?
A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotics and oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
The nurse is caring for a client who requires a mechanical ventilator for breathing. The high-pressure alarm goes off on the ventilator. What is the first action the nurse should perform?
A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses