HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. After a lumbar puncture, a client reports a severe headache. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer a dose of acetaminophen.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Encourage the client to rest in a dark room.
- D. Administer caffeine to relieve the headache.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, a severe headache is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Elevating the head of the bed or having the client lie flat can reduce cerebrospinal fluid pressure and alleviate the headache. These positions help prevent further fluid loss and relieve discomfort. While acetaminophen or caffeine may help in relieving the headache, changing the client's position is the priority to address the underlying cause. Resting in a dark room may be beneficial for headache relief but is not the priority intervention compared to adjusting the position to manage cerebrospinal fluid pressure.
2. A client is experiencing acute bronchospasm. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer a nebulizer treatment of albuterol.
- B. Start an IV infusion of normal saline.
- C. Administer oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula.
- D. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a nebulizer treatment of albuterol. In acute bronchospasm, the priority intervention is to deliver a bronchodilator like albuterol to open the airways and improve breathing. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline (Choice B) may be necessary but not the priority in this situation. Administering oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula (Choice C) is important but not the first intervention for bronchospasm. Positioning the client in a high Fowler's position (Choice D) can help with breathing but is not the priority over administering a bronchodilator.
3. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?
- A. Sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae.
- B. Previous treatment with penicillin.
- C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension.
- D. Documented allergy to sulfa drugs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.
4. A client with a seizure disorder is prescribed phenytoin. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?
- A. Take phenytoin with antacids to reduce stomach upset.
- B. Maintain a consistent dosing schedule to prevent seizures.
- C. Monitor for excessive drowsiness and dizziness.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime to reduce seizure risk.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important teaching the nurse should provide to a client prescribed phenytoin is to maintain a consistent dosing schedule to prevent seizures. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug, and missing doses can increase the risk of seizures. Option A is incorrect because antacids can interact with phenytoin and reduce its absorption. Option C is important but not the most critical teaching as compared to maintaining a consistent dosing schedule. Option D is incorrect because the timing of phenytoin administration should be consistent rather than specifically at bedtime.
5. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) is experiencing hyperkalemia. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer IV calcium gluconate.
- B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).
- C. Administer insulin with dextrose.
- D. Restrict potassium intake in the client's diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) experiencing hyperkalemia is to administer IV calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps stabilize the myocardium and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias in hyperkalemia by antagonizing the cardiac effects of high potassium levels. Choice B, administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), is used to lower potassium levels in the gastrointestinal tract but is not the priority in acute severe hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering insulin with dextrose, helps drive potassium into cells but is not the priority in a client at risk for arrhythmias due to hyperkalemia. Choice D, restricting potassium intake in the client's diet, is a long-term strategy but is not the immediate priority in managing acute hyperkalemia.
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