a client reports a severe headache after a lumbar puncture what is the nurses priority intervention
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. After a lumbar puncture, a client reports a severe headache. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, a severe headache is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Elevating the head of the bed or having the client lie flat can reduce cerebrospinal fluid pressure and alleviate the headache. These positions help prevent further fluid loss and relieve discomfort. While acetaminophen or caffeine may help in relieving the headache, changing the client's position is the priority to address the underlying cause. Resting in a dark room may be beneficial for headache relief but is not the priority intervention compared to adjusting the position to manage cerebrospinal fluid pressure.

2. On admission to the Emergency Department, a female client who was diagnosed with bipolar disorder 3 years ago reports that this morning, she took a handful of medications and left a suicide note for her family. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Determining the specific medications ingested is the priority for guiding immediate treatment in the Emergency Department. Knowing when the client last took medications and her current mood are also important, but the ingested medications are the most urgent information needed. The client's current mood and affect are crucial for assessing her immediate state, but the priority is to identify the substances she ingested to provide appropriate interventions. While understanding the history of previous suicide attempts is relevant for assessing the client's risk, the immediate focus should be on the medications taken during this specific incident.

3. When a pediatric client is taking the beta-adrenergic blocking agent propranolol, what signs of overdose should the nurse instruct the parents to report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a pediatric client is taking propranolol, the nurse should instruct the parents to report signs of overdose, including bradycardia. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can lead to dangerously slow heart rate as a sign of overdose. While increased respiratory rate, seizures, and irritability may occur in some cases, bradycardia is the most critical symptom indicating an overdose of this medication.

4. Which medication should the nurse withhold if the client's serum potassium level is 6.2 mEq/L?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia. With potassium levels already elevated at 6.2 mEq/L, withholding Spironolactone is essential to prevent further increase in potassium levels, which could result in dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Losartan (Choice A) is an angiotensin receptor blocker and does not directly affect potassium levels. Metoprolol (Choice C) is a beta-blocker and also does not impact potassium levels significantly. Furosemide (Choice D) is a loop diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so it would not be the medication to withhold in this case.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In SIADH, there is excessive ADH secretion leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. The most crucial intervention is to restrict fluid intake to prevent further fluid overload and worsening of hyponatremia. Encouraging oral hydration (choice A) would exacerbate the condition by adding more fluids. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (choice B) is not appropriate as the client is at risk of fluid overload. Administering IV fluids (choice D) would worsen the hyponatremia and should be avoided.

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