a nurse is performing cpr on an adult who went into cardiopulmonary arrest another nurse enters the room in response to the call after checking the cl
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Nutrition HESI Practice Exam

1. When another nurse enters the room in response to a call, after checking the client's pulse and respirations during CPR on an adult in cardiopulmonary arrest, what should be the function of the second nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to participate in compressions or breathing. This is essential to ensure continuous and effective CPR. Relieving the nurse performing CPR (Choice A) is not recommended as it can interrupt the life-saving procedure. Going to get the code cart (Choice B) may be necessary in certain situations but should not take precedence over providing immediate assistance in CPR. Validating the client's advanced directive (Choice D) is not the primary role in this scenario where urgent action is needed to support the client's circulation and breathing.

2. An elderly client admitted after a fall begins to seize and loses consciousness. What action by the nurse is appropriate to do next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to stay with the client and observe for airway obstruction. This is crucial as it ensures immediate intervention if there is any airway compromise. Choice B is incorrect as padding the side rails of the bed is not the priority in this situation. Choice C is incorrect because inserting an oral airway and suctioning should only be done if there is evidence of airway obstruction, and it is not the initial step. Choice D is incorrect as announcing a cardiac arrest and assisting with intubation is not the immediate action needed when a client is seizing and losing consciousness.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which of these assessments is a priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for signs of infection at the insertion site is the priority when caring for a client with a chest tube. Infection at the insertion site can lead to serious complications such as empyema or sepsis. Monitoring respiratory status is essential but assessing for infection takes precedence to prevent immediate harm. Assessing for subcutaneous emphysema is important but not the priority unless it compromises respiratory function. Checking the chest tube for kinks or occlusions is crucial for proper drainage but is not the priority when infection is a concern.

4. A client with diabetes is being educated about the dietary source that should provide the greatest percentage of their calories. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In diabetes management, complex carbohydrates should constitute the largest portion of the diet as they help in maintaining steady energy levels and managing blood sugar. Choice A is incorrect because a high-fat diet can lead to complications in diabetes. Choice C is incorrect as simple sugars can cause rapid spikes in blood sugar levels. Choice D is incorrect as protein, while important, should not be the main source of calories for a diabetic individual.

5. A client with a history of seizures is being monitored with an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to prepare the client for the test?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the EEG is essential. This intervention helps ensure accurate test results by preventing stimulation of the nervous system, which could interfere with the interpretation of the brain's electrical activity. Explaining the procedure and obtaining consent are important steps but do not directly impact the test results. Administering anticonvulsant medication as ordered is a medical intervention and not a preparation step for the test. Instructing the client to wash their hair the morning of the test is not necessary for EEG preparation.

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