Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing care for a client with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to ambulate
• B. Apply a warm compress to the left leg
• C. Elevate the client's left leg
• D. Administer a prescribed anticoagulant

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the affected leg promotes venous return and reduces swelling, which is a priority intervention for a client with suspected DVT. This action helps prevent the thrombus from dislodging and causing further complications. Encouraging ambulation may dislodge the clot, leading to a pulmonary embolism. Applying a warm compress can increase blood flow to the area, potentially dislodging the clot. Administering anticoagulants is essential but should not be the first action as elevation helps to reduce the risk of complications associated with DVT.

2. A client has suspected compartment syndrome of the right lower leg. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Elevate the right leg to reduce swelling.
• B. Loosen any restrictive dressings on the leg.
• C. Prepare the client for emergency surgery.
• D. Administer pain medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a suspected case of compartment syndrome, the nurse's priority intervention is to loosen any restrictive dressings on the leg. This action helps to relieve pressure within the affected compartment, improve circulation, and prevent permanent damage. Elevating the leg may further increase pressure, preparing for emergency surgery is premature without proper assessment and diagnosis, and administering pain medication should come after addressing the primary issue of relieving pressure.

3. A 66-year-old woman is retiring and needs health insurance. To which agency should the employee health nurse refer her?

• A. Medicaid
• B. Medicare
• C. COBRA
• D. Private insurance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medicare. Medicare is the federal health insurance program for individuals aged 65 and older, so it is the most suitable option for the 66-year-old woman retiring. Medicaid (choice A) is a state and federally funded program for low-income individuals and families, not specifically for retirees. COBRA (choice C) allows employees to continue their employer-sponsored health insurance for a limited time after leaving employment. Private insurance (choice D) refers to health insurance plans purchased directly from private insurance companies.

4. A client is receiving continuous intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to ensure therapeutic heparin levels?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most accurate measure of heparin's therapeutic effect. Heparin increases the time it takes for blood to clot, and the aPTT helps determine whether the dose is within the desired range for anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR, hemoglobin, or platelet count is not specific to assessing therapeutic heparin levels and may not reflect the anticoagulant effect of heparin.

5. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?

• A. Sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae.
• B. Previous treatment with penicillin.
• C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension.
• D. Documented allergy to sulfa drugs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.

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