a client is admitted with a suspected pulmonary embolism pe what is the nurses priority intervention
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client is admitted with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for a CT scan. A CT scan is essential in confirming the presence of a pulmonary embolism (PE) and guiding further treatment. Administering anticoagulant therapy (Choice A) is important in the management of PE, but it is not the priority intervention in this case. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice B) is beneficial for optimizing oxygenation but is not the priority intervention when a PE is suspected. Checking the client's oxygen saturation (Choice C) is important, but obtaining a definitive diagnosis through a CT scan takes precedence in this situation.

2. A client with heart failure reports nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations. What should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The combination of nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations in a heart failure patient is indicative of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should first obtain a list of the client's medications to verify if they are taking digoxin.

3. The nurse prepares to teach clients about blood glucose monitoring. When should clients always check glucose, regardless of age or type of diabetes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: During acute illness. Checking blood glucose during acute illness is crucial as stress can elevate glucose levels. This monitoring is essential regardless of the client's age or the type of diabetes they have. Checking before going to bed (choice A) may be important for some individuals, but it's not as universally necessary as during acute illness. Checking after meals (choice B) and prior to exercising (choice D) are important times for monitoring blood glucose, but they are not as universally applicable as during acute illness.

4. When assessing a recently delivered multigravida client, the nurse finds that her vaginal bleeding is more than expected. Which factor in this client's history is related to this finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with a higher gravida and para count is at greater risk for uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. The uterus may be less effective at contracting after multiple pregnancies, causing increased vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because delivering a large baby, having a cesarean delivery, or experiencing prolonged labor do not directly correlate with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage in a multigravida client as compared to the gravida and para count.

5. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action in this situation. Standing to void often helps relieve the bladder, especially after surgery. Option A, having him drink several glasses of water, may not be as effective as the client might already be adequately hydrated. Option B, Crede maneuver, is a technique for emptying the bladder by applying manual pressure and is not the first-line intervention for a client who cannot void post-surgery. Option D, waiting 2 hours before trying to void again, may delay necessary intervention if the client is experiencing urinary retention.

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