Nursing Elites

1. A female client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is sedated and on a ventilator with 50% FIO2. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention?

• A. Assess the client’s lung sounds bilaterally.
• B. Diminished left lower lobe sounds.
• C. Monitor ventilator settings for changes in oxygen levels.
• D. Increased sputum production and shortness of breath.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diminished breath sounds in a sedated client with ARDS and on a ventilator indicate collapsed alveoli, which requires immediate intervention, such as chest tube insertion, to prevent further lung damage. Assessing bilateral lung sounds (Choice A) is important but not as urgent as identifying diminished sounds in a specific location. Monitoring ventilator settings (Choice C) is essential but does not directly address the immediate need for intervention due to diminished breath sounds. Increased sputum production and shortness of breath (Choice D) may indicate other issues but are not specific to the urgency of addressing diminished breath sounds in ARDS.

2. A client at 12 weeks gestation is admitted to the antepartum unit with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Provide emotional support
• B. Monitor daily weight
• C. Encourage small frequent meals
• D. Initiate prescribed intravenous fluids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum, characterized by severe nausea and vomiting, leads to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. The priority intervention is initiating IV fluids to correct these imbalances. Providing emotional support is important for the client's well-being, but addressing fluid and electrolyte imbalances takes precedence. Monitoring daily weight and encouraging small frequent meals are beneficial interventions but are not the priority when managing hyperemesis gravidarum.

3. A client is admitted with a large bowel obstruction. What finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Absence of bowel sounds in all four quadrants.
• B. Abdominal distention with a firm, rigid abdomen.
• C. Frequent, small, liquid stools.
• D. Nausea and vomiting that worsens after meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Abdominal distention with a firm, rigid abdomen is a concerning sign that may indicate perforation, which requires immediate intervention. The rigidity suggests a complication of the large bowel obstruction. Absence of bowel sounds in all four quadrants, option A, is a common finding in a bowel obstruction but not as alarming as a rigid abdomen. Frequent, small, liquid stools, option C, are not typical findings in a large bowel obstruction; instead, constipation is more common. Nausea and vomiting that worsens after meals, option D, are also common symptoms of a bowel obstruction but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening complication like a perforation.

4. A client tells the nurse, 'I have something very important to tell you if you promise not to tell.' The best response by the nurse is

• A. I must document and report any information.
• B. I can't make such a promise.
• C. That depends on what you tell me.
• D. I must report everything to the treatment team.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse cannot promise confidentiality in this context. It is essential to prioritize the safety and well-being of the client and others. Certain information, such as harm to oneself or others, must be reported to ensure appropriate interventions are taken. Choice A is incorrect because while documentation is important, confidentiality cannot be guaranteed in this situation. Choice C is incorrect as the nurse should not make promises that may conflict with their professional responsibilities. Choice D is incorrect as reporting everything to the treatment team without discretion may breach client confidentiality.

5. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of corticosteroids.
• B. Place the client in a supine position.
• C. Encourage oral fluid intake.
• D. Review the client's recent medication history.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of corticosteroids is the correct first action when a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy presents with weakness and hypotension. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged corticosteroid use. Administering corticosteroids promptly can help correct this insufficiency and improve the client's symptoms. Placing the client in a supine position may be necessary for symptomatic hypotension, but addressing the root cause with corticosteroids is more crucial initially. Encouraging oral fluid intake is important for many conditions but is not the priority in this case. Reviewing the client's recent medication history can provide valuable information but is not the first action needed to address the client's current presentation.

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