HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A female client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is sedated and on a ventilator with 50% FIO2. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention?
- A. Assess the client’s lung sounds bilaterally.
- B. Diminished left lower lobe sounds.
- C. Monitor ventilator settings for changes in oxygen levels.
- D. Increased sputum production and shortness of breath.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diminished breath sounds in a sedated client with ARDS and on a ventilator indicate collapsed alveoli, which requires immediate intervention, such as chest tube insertion, to prevent further lung damage. Assessing bilateral lung sounds (Choice A) is important but not as urgent as identifying diminished sounds in a specific location. Monitoring ventilator settings (Choice C) is essential but does not directly address the immediate need for intervention due to diminished breath sounds. Increased sputum production and shortness of breath (Choice D) may indicate other issues but are not specific to the urgency of addressing diminished breath sounds in ARDS.
2. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) is experiencing hyperkalemia. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer IV calcium gluconate.
- B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).
- C. Administer insulin with dextrose.
- D. Restrict potassium intake in the client's diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) experiencing hyperkalemia is to administer IV calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps stabilize the myocardium and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias in hyperkalemia by antagonizing the cardiac effects of high potassium levels. Choice B, administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), is used to lower potassium levels in the gastrointestinal tract but is not the priority in acute severe hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering insulin with dextrose, helps drive potassium into cells but is not the priority in a client at risk for arrhythmias due to hyperkalemia. Choice D, restricting potassium intake in the client's diet, is a long-term strategy but is not the immediate priority in managing acute hyperkalemia.
3. A client with a recent myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta-blocker. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor the client for bradycardia.
- B. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.
- C. Monitor the client for signs of hyperglycemia.
- D. Monitor for signs of fluid retention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.' Beta-blockers can lead to decreased heart rate, but bradycardia is not the primary side effect to monitor. Monitoring for bradycardia is more relevant when administering medications like digoxin. Hyperglycemia is associated with medications like corticosteroids, not beta-blockers. Fluid retention is a side effect seen with medications like corticosteroids or calcium channel blockers, not beta-blockers. Therefore, in a client taking a beta-blocker after a myocardial infarction, monitoring for hypotension is crucial due to the medication's mechanism of action.
4. The nurse is managing the care of a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which interventions should the nurse delegate to the UAP?
- A. Report any client complaint of pain or discomfort
- B. Weigh the client and report any weight gain
- C. Note and report the client's food and liquid intake during meals and snacks
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The UAP can be tasked with reporting complaints, monitoring weight gain, and tracking food and fluid intake, all of which are important in managing a client with Cushing's syndrome. These tasks fall within the UAP's scope of practice. Reporting client complaints helps in early identification of complications, monitoring weight is crucial due to fluid retention in Cushing's syndrome, and tracking food and fluid intake assists in dietary management. Choices A, B, and C are all necessary components of care for a client with Cushing's syndrome, making option D the correct answer.
5. A client has viral pneumonia affecting 2/3 of the right lung. What would be the best position to teach the client to lie in every other hour during the first 12 hours after admission?
- A. Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees
- B. Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 35 degrees
- C. Side-lying on the right with the head elevated 10 degrees
- D. Side-lying on the right with the head elevated 35 degrees
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees. This position maximizes ventilation and promotes better perfusion to the unaffected lung. Placing the client in this position helps to optimize oxygenation and reduce pressure on the affected lung. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lying on the left side with the head elevated is essential to facilitate better lung expansion and gas exchange in the unaffected lung, while lying on the right side could further compromise the affected lung by increasing pressure on it.
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