HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client with antisocial personality disorder repeatedly requests a specific nurse be assigned to him and is belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?
- A. Remind the client that nurse assignments are not based on patient requests
- B. Assign the nurse requested by the client to avoid further conflict
- C. Tell the client that he can request a different nurse if unhappy
- D. Explain the situation calmly and reinforce the rules regarding nurse assignments
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to remind the client that nurse assignments are not based on patient requests. In this situation, it is essential to establish boundaries and communicate that nurse assignments are made based on clinical decisions, not patient preferences. Option B is incorrect because it compromises the principle of fairness in nurse assignments. Option C is incorrect as it encourages the client's behavior by allowing him to request a different nurse based on personal preferences. Option D is also incorrect as it does not address the issue of patient manipulation and reinforces inappropriate behavior.
2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for frequent hyperglycemic episodes and a glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) of 10%. Insulin glargine 10 units subcutaneously once a day at bedtime and a sliding scale of insulin aspart every 6 hours are prescribed. What actions should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Teach subcutaneous injection technique, site rotation, and insulin management
- B. Coordinate carbohydrate-controlled meals at consistent times and intervals
- C. Review with the client proper foot care and prevention of injury
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Effective diabetes management involves comprehensive care, including proper foot care, insulin administration technique, and maintaining carbohydrate consistency with meals. All of these interventions are critical in reducing hyperglycemic episodes and managing diabetes.
3. The nurse is teaching a client with asthma to use a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) meter to manage asthma at home. The nurse knows the client understands the proper use of the meter when the client:
- A. Inhales as rapidly as possible when using the meter
- B. Records the highest of three readings
- C. Uses the meter after taking a bronchodilator
- D. Blows out forcefully into the meter after taking a deep breath
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Records the highest of three readings.' When using a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) meter, the client should record the highest of three readings to ensure an accurate measurement of their peak expiratory flow rate. Inhaling rapidly, using the meter after taking a bronchodilator, or blowing out forcefully into the meter after a deep breath are not correct techniques for using a PEFR meter and may lead to inaccurate results.
4. A nurse is performing CPR on an adult who went into cardiopulmonary arrest. Another nurse enters the room in response to the call. After checking the client's pulse and respirations, what should be the function of the second nurse?
- A. Relieve the nurse performing CPR
- B. Go get the code cart
- C. Participate with the compressions or breathing
- D. Validate the client's advanced directive
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The second nurse should assist with compressions or breathing to ensure the patient receives adequate care during CPR. This immediate intervention is crucial in maintaining blood circulation and oxygenation to vital organs. Choice A is incorrect because simply relieving the nurse performing CPR may lead to a delay in essential life-saving measures. Choice B is incorrect as the primary focus should be on providing direct assistance rather than fetching equipment. Choice D is incorrect as validating the client's advanced directive is not the priority in this emergency situation.
5. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Thiamine supplementation
- B. Folic acid replacement
- C. Intravenous glucose
- D. Magnesium sulfate administration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access