HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client with chronic liver disease is prescribed lactulose. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Bilirubin level
- B. Serum ammonia level
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. Albumin level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum ammonia level. Lactulose is used to lower serum ammonia levels in clients with chronic liver disease, particularly in cases of hepatic encephalopathy. Monitoring serum ammonia levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of lactulose in managing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the action or evaluation of lactulose in chronic liver disease.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving digoxin therapy. The nurse reviews the client's lab results and notes that the serum potassium level is 3.0 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take next?
- A. Administer a potassium supplement
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Hold the next dose of digoxin
- D. Increase dietary potassium intake
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In clients receiving digoxin therapy, low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, when the nurse notes a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L, it is crucial to hold the next dose of digoxin. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions, such as potassium supplementation, can be implemented. Administering a potassium supplement without healthcare provider guidance may lead to rapid potassium level changes and potential adverse effects. Increasing dietary potassium intake alone may not promptly address the low serum potassium level in this acute situation.
3. Prior to obtaining a trapeze bar for a client with limited mobility, which client assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Balance and coordination
- B. Cognitive status
- C. Level of pain
- D. Upper body muscle strength
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Upper body muscle strength. The ability to use a trapeze bar requires adequate upper body strength to support the weight and facilitate repositioning. While assessing pain, coordination, and cognitive status are important, the priority is determining if the client can physically manage the trapeze bar safely. Without sufficient upper body muscle strength, the client may not be able to use the trapeze bar effectively and safely. Assessing balance and coordination is also important but secondary to ensuring the client has the required upper body strength. Cognitive status is crucial for understanding instructions related to using the trapeze bar, but it is not the most critical assessment in this scenario. Pain assessment is essential for overall care but does not directly impact the client's ability to use a trapeze bar like upper body muscle strength does.
4. A client with adrenal crisis has a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138 bpm, and blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
- B. Infuse intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
- D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with adrenal crisis presenting with a high temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, the priority action for the nurse to implement first is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention aims to address the hypotension by increasing the circulating volume and improving perfusion. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering an oral antipyretic (Choice C) may help reduce the fever but does not address the primary issue of hypotension. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) may help with temperature control but does not address the hemodynamic instability caused by the adrenal crisis.
5. A client tells the nurse about working out with a personal trainer and swimming three times a week in an effort to lose weight and sleep better. The client states that it still takes hours to fall asleep at night. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Advise the client to reduce exercise intensity
- B. Ask the client for a description of the exercise schedule that is being followed
- C. Encourage the client to try relaxation techniques before bed
- D. Suggest avoiding water-based exercise before bed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Asking the client for a description of the exercise schedule being followed is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario. Understanding the timing and intensity of the client's exercise routine can help identify if the activity is contributing to sleep disturbances. Exercise too close to bedtime can cause difficulty falling asleep. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the need to assess the exercise schedule and may not provide the necessary information to identify the potential cause of the client's sleep issue.
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