Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a large pleural effusion. Which procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?

• A. Thoracentesis.
• B. Endotracheal intubation.
• C. Chest tube insertion.
• D. Bronchoscopy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct procedure for a client with a large pleural effusion is thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used to remove fluid from the pleural space, which can help relieve symptoms associated with pleural effusion. Choice B (Endotracheal intubation) is incorrect as it is a procedure to secure the airway by placing a tube into the trachea. Choice C (Chest tube insertion) is incorrect as it is typically done to drain air or fluid from the pleural space over a longer period. Choice D (Bronchoscopy) is incorrect as it is a procedure used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung conditions, not specifically for pleural effusion removal.

2. A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan about this medication?

• A. Take the medication with a full meal
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach
• C. Take the medication at bedtime
• D. Take the medication as needed for symptoms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take the medication on an empty stomach.' Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption and effectiveness. The medication is typically taken in the morning before breakfast. Choice A is incorrect because taking levothyroxine with a full meal can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because bedtime dosing may lead to insomnia. Choice D is incorrect because levothyroxine is a daily medication for hypothyroidism, not to be taken as needed for symptoms.

3. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should give?

• A. Take the medication with aspirin to improve effectiveness.
• B. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables to support the medication.
• C. Avoid foods high in potassium to reduce bleeding risk.
• D. Avoid alcohol and over-the-counter medications without consulting the provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking warfarin should avoid alcohol and over-the-counter medications without consulting their healthcare provider, as these can interact with warfarin and increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin, in particular, can exacerbate this risk. Choice A is incorrect because taking warfarin with aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as while green leafy vegetables contain vitamin K which can interact with warfarin, it is more important to maintain a consistent intake rather than increase it. Choice C is incorrect because foods high in potassium do not directly impact the bleeding risk associated with warfarin.

4. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instruction should the nurse provide the UAP who is working with the nurse?

• A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake
• B. Document the absence of reaction
• C. Notify the nurse if the client develops a fever
• D. Continue to measure the client's vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring vital signs throughout a transfusion is critical, as reactions can occur later in the process. The UAP should continue to check vital signs regularly to ensure that any delayed reaction is promptly detected. Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake (Choice A) is not necessary at this point, as the focus should be on monitoring. Documenting the absence of a reaction (Choice B) is important but not as crucial as ongoing vital sign monitoring. Notifying the nurse if the client develops a fever (Choice C) is relevant but should not be the UAP's primary responsibility during the transfusion.

5. A client who recently received a prescription for ramelteon to treat sleep deprivation reports experiencing several side effects since taking the drug. Which side effect should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Somnambulism
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Vivid dreams
• D. Daytime sleepiness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Somnambulism' (sleepwalking). Somnambulism is a potentially dangerous side effect that should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. Sleepwalking can pose risks to the individual's safety and may indicate a serious adverse reaction to the medication. Dry mouth (choice B), vivid dreams (choice C), and daytime sleepiness (choice D) are common side effects of ramelteon and are generally not considered as urgent or serious as somnambulism. While these side effects can impact the client's quality of life, they are not typically associated with immediate safety concerns.

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