a client is admitted with a large pleural effusion which procedure should the nurse prepare the client for
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. A client is admitted with a large pleural effusion. Which procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct procedure for a client with a large pleural effusion is thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used to remove fluid from the pleural space, which can help relieve symptoms associated with pleural effusion. Choice B (Endotracheal intubation) is incorrect as it is a procedure to secure the airway by placing a tube into the trachea. Choice C (Chest tube insertion) is incorrect as it is typically done to drain air or fluid from the pleural space over a longer period. Choice D (Bronchoscopy) is incorrect as it is a procedure used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung conditions, not specifically for pleural effusion removal.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant, IM, every 8 hours. The vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mg/ml after reconstitution. How many ml should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 35 mg of celtazidime from a 100 mg/ml solution, the nurse should give 0.4 ml of the reconstituted celtazidime solution. The calculation is 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml, but since the vial is 500 mg, the answer is 0.35 ml * (500 mg / 100 mg) = 0.4 ml. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

3. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin. What teaching should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed metformin includes monitoring renal function regularly due to the risk of lactic acidosis, especially in clients with impaired kidney function. While taking metformin with meals can reduce gastrointestinal upset, it is not the highest priority teaching point. Avoiding alcohol is generally recommended but not the most critical teaching point in this scenario. Checking blood glucose levels regularly is important for diabetes management but not specifically related to metformin use.

5. A child newly diagnosed with sickle cell anemia (SCA) is being discharged from the hospital. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the parents prior to discharge?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Proper hydration is crucial in managing sickle cell anemia (SCA) as it helps prevent sickling of red blood cells and reduces blood viscosity, which can lead to painful crises. Ensuring the child drinks enough fluids is essential to maintain adequate hydration levels and reduce the risk of complications. While nutritional guidelines and recognizing signs of infection are important aspects of care, maintaining proper hydration is the most immediate and critical factor in managing SCA and preventing crises.

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