a client with pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital which intervention has the highest priority
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. A client with pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention has the highest priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Start intravenous fluids at a fast rate. In a client with pheochromocytoma, the highest priority intervention is to ensure adequate intravascular volume before initiating any other treatment. This helps prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure that can occur due to the release of catecholamines during tumor manipulation. While monitoring blood pressure frequently is essential, ensuring adequate intravascular volume takes precedence. Administering pain medication and antihypertensive medications are important but are not the highest priority in the initial management of pheochromocytoma.

2. What does the nurse's signature on the client’s surgical consent form signify?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's signature on a surgical consent form signifies that the client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done. This is the correct answer because the nurse's signature does not imply the client's competence, understanding of risks and benefits, or that the client signed the form freely and voluntarily. The nurse's role is to verify that the client has made an informed decision and is providing consent for the procedure.

3. While assessing an older client's fall risk, the client reports living at home alone and never falling. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to continue obtaining client data to complete the fall risk survey. Even though the client reports never falling, it is essential to assess all fall risk factors comprehensively. Fall risk surveys provide valuable information on mobility, vision, medications, and other factors that can impact safety. Option A is incorrect because suggesting moving to an assisted living facility is premature without completing the fall risk assessment. Option C is incorrect as reducing the frequency of fall risk assessments could overlook potential risk factors. Option D is incorrect as the client's statement alone is not enough to confirm their safety living alone; a thorough assessment is necessary.

4. The nurse is planning care for a client with a venous leg ulcer. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care to promote healing?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Compression therapy is essential for managing venous leg ulcers as it helps improve venous return, reduces edema, and promotes healing. By applying compression therapy to the affected leg, the nurse can assist in enhancing circulation, reducing swelling, and aiding in the healing process. Keeping the affected leg in a dependent position can worsen venous insufficiency. Massaging the area surrounding the ulcer is contraindicated as it can cause further damage and delay healing. While encouraging the client to elevate the leg is beneficial, it is not as effective as compression therapy for promoting healing in venous leg ulcers.

5. The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight-bearing exercises are crucial in managing osteoporosis as they help strengthen bones. Choice A is the correct answer because weight-bearing activities, such as walking, dancing, or weight training, help stimulate bone formation and strengthen bones, which is essential in managing osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect as the primary focus should be on the type of exercise rather than weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect because avoiding exercise altogether can lead to further bone density loss, and it is important to engage in safe weight-bearing activities. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of exercise in osteoporosis is to improve bone density through weight-bearing activities.

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