Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing an older adult for discharge following cataract extraction. What is the most important instruction?

• A. Avoid straining, bending, or lifting heavy objects.
• B. Limit exposure to sunlight for the first 2 weeks.
• C. Use direct lighting when reading for 6 weeks.
• D. Irrigate the conjunctiva with saline before applying ointment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important instruction for a patient following cataract extraction is to avoid straining, bending, or lifting heavy objects. These activities can increase intraocular pressure and potentially lead to complications such as bleeding or dislocation of the intraocular lens. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical in the immediate post-operative period. Limiting sunlight exposure and using direct lighting when reading are important but not as crucial as avoiding activities that can increase intraocular pressure. Irrigating the conjunctiva with saline before applying ointment is not a standard post-cataract surgery instruction.

2. A client presents to the labor and delivery unit with a report of leaking fluid that is greenish-brown vaginal discharge. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• B. Begin continuous fetal monitoring
• C. Check the amniotic fluid pH
• D. Assess maternal vital signs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Greenish-brown discharge likely indicates meconium in the amniotic fluid, which poses a risk to the fetus. Continuous fetal monitoring should be initiated immediately to assess for signs of fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn, so timely monitoring is crucial. Checking the amniotic fluid pH can help confirm the presence of meconium but is not the priority over fetal monitoring. Assessing maternal vital signs is important but secondary to monitoring the fetal well-being in this urgent situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can follow once the immediate fetal assessment is underway.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site should the nurse select?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal muscle
• C. Vastus lateralis muscle
• D. Dorsogluteal muscle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults because it is free from major blood vessels and nerves, reducing the risk of injury. The deltoid muscle can be used for smaller volumes of medication, primarily vaccines. The vastus lateralis muscle is commonly used in infants, toddlers, and young children. The dorsogluteal muscle site is discouraged due to its proximity to the sciatic nerve, increasing the risk of injury or nerve damage.

4. A client with multiple sclerosis is experiencing fatigue. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to increase physical activity.
• B. Encourage the client to take rest breaks during activities.
• C. Administer a stimulant medication to reduce fatigue.
• D. Advise the client to use energy conservation techniques.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Advise the client to use energy conservation techniques. Energy conservation techniques are crucial in managing fatigue in multiple sclerosis. These techniques involve prioritizing activities, pacing oneself, and taking rest breaks to prevent overexertion, which can exacerbate fatigue. Encouraging the client to increase physical activity (choice A) may worsen fatigue if not done with proper energy conservation. Taking rest breaks during activities (choice B) is important but falls secondary to teaching energy conservation techniques. Administering a stimulant medication to reduce fatigue (choice C) should not be the priority as non-pharmacological interventions like energy conservation should be attempted first.

5. A client receiving heparin therapy experiences a drop in platelet count. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Continue to monitor the platelet count.
• B. Discontinue the heparin infusion.
• C. Administer platelet transfusion.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. A drop in platelet count during heparin therapy may indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious condition that increases the risk of clot formation. Immediate discontinuation of heparin is necessary to prevent further complications. Administering platelet transfusion without addressing the underlying cause can be harmful. Continuing to monitor the platelet count without taking immediate action can lead to delayed intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for assessment and initiation of alternative anticoagulation therapy to manage the client's condition effectively.

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