Nursing Elites

1. A nurse receives a report on a client who is four hours post-total abdominal hysterectomy. The previous nurse reported that it was necessary to change the client's perineal pad hourly and that it is again saturated. The previous nurse also reports that the client's urinary output has decreased. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Measure urinary output
• B. Assess for weakness or dizziness
• C. Increase IV fluids
• D. Check for vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Saturation of the perineal pad after a hysterectomy suggests excessive vaginal bleeding, which must be addressed immediately. Assessing for vaginal bleeding is the priority in this situation as it can lead to hypovolemic shock. Measuring urinary output, assessing for weakness or dizziness, and increasing IV fluids are important interventions but checking for vaginal bleeding takes precedence due to the risk of hemorrhage post-hysterectomy.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department with confusion, sweating, and a blood sugar level of 45 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Provide a carbohydrate snack
• C. Check the client's urine for ketones
• D. Start an insulin drip

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A blood sugar level of 45 mg/dL indicates severe hypoglycemia, which can lead to life-threatening complications if not treated immediately. The priority is to administer IV dextrose to rapidly increase the blood sugar level. Administering 50% dextrose IV push will provide a quick source of glucose to raise the blood sugar. Providing a carbohydrate snack is not the immediate priority in this critical situation. Checking the client's urine for ketones is important in diabetic ketoacidosis, not for hypoglycemia. Starting an insulin drip would further lower the blood sugar and worsen the client's condition.

3. A client with Alzheimer's disease is exhibiting signs of agitation and aggression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Reassure the client and provide emotional support.
• B. Redirect the client to a quiet activity.
• C. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam.
• D. Apply soft restraints as needed to prevent harm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to redirect the client to a quiet activity. This intervention helps reduce agitation and aggression in clients with Alzheimer's disease by providing a distraction and promoting a calming environment. Reassuring the client and providing emotional support (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice C) should not be the first intervention due to the risk of adverse effects and should only be considered if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective. Applying restraints (Choice D) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for the client's safety as it can lead to further distress and is not the initial priority intervention.

4. When monitoring tissue perfusion following an above the knee amputation (AKA), which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Evaluate the closest proximal pulse.
• B. Observe the color and amount of wound drainage.
• C. Observe for swelling around the stump.
• D. Assess the skin elasticity of the stump.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Evaluating the closest proximal pulse is essential when monitoring tissue perfusion post-amputation. This pulse provides crucial information about the circulation and perfusion to the limb. Observing the color and amount of wound drainage (Choice B) is more related to wound healing assessment rather than tissue perfusion. Observing for swelling around the stump (Choice C) may indicate inflammation or infection but is not the most direct assessment of tissue perfusion. Assessing skin elasticity of the stump (Choice D) is important for skin integrity but does not directly reflect tissue perfusion.

5. The mother of a 2-day-old infant girl expresses concern about a 'flea bite' type rash on her daughter's body. The nurse identifies a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed over the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen. Which explanation should the nurse offer?

• A. We need to monitor the rash for signs of worsening or fever
• B. Your baby may have an allergic reaction to laundry detergent
• C. This is a common newborn rash that will resolve after several days
• D. This is likely a bacterial infection requiring antibiotics

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The rash described is typical of erythema toxicum neonatorum, a common and benign newborn rash that resolves on its own within a few days. No treatment is necessary, and the nurse should reassure the mother. Choice A is incorrect as the rash is self-limiting and does not require monitoring for worsening signs or fever. Choice B is incorrect as erythema toxicum neonatorum is not caused by an allergic reaction to laundry detergent. Choice D is incorrect as this rash is not indicative of a bacterial infection that requires antibiotics.

Similar Questions