Nursing Elites

1. A nurse receives a report on a client who is four hours post-total abdominal hysterectomy. The previous nurse reported that it was necessary to change the client's perineal pad hourly and that it is again saturated. The previous nurse also reports that the client's urinary output has decreased. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Measure urinary output
• B. Assess for weakness or dizziness
• C. Increase IV fluids
• D. Check for vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Saturation of the perineal pad after a hysterectomy suggests excessive vaginal bleeding, which must be addressed immediately. Assessing for vaginal bleeding is the priority in this situation as it can lead to hypovolemic shock. Measuring urinary output, assessing for weakness or dizziness, and increasing IV fluids are important interventions but checking for vaginal bleeding takes precedence due to the risk of hemorrhage post-hysterectomy.

2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting clotting factors, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring PT helps ensure that the medication is working effectively to prevent clot formation without causing excessive bleeding. Platelet count (Choice A) is not specific to warfarin therapy and assesses the number of platelets in the blood. White blood cell count (Choice C) and hemoglobin level (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.

3. A woman who is breastfeeding calls her obstetrician’s office and reports increased anxiety since the vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. She stopped taking her antianxiety medications but is thinking of restarting them. What response should the nurse provide?

• A. Describe the potential transmission of drugs to the infant through breast milk.
• B. Encourage her to utilize stress-relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing.
• C. Explain that anxiety is a common reaction for mothers of 3-week-old infants.
• D. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because some antianxiety medications are considered safe during breastfeeding. The nurse should reassure the client and encourage her to discuss options with her healthcare provider to manage anxiety safely while continuing to breastfeed. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the transmission of drugs rather than providing guidance on safe medication use. Choice B, while promoting stress-relieving techniques, does not address the potential need for medication. Choice C is incorrect as it minimizes the woman's reported anxiety, which may require professional intervention.

4. The nurse is planning to administer two medications at 0900. Which property of the drugs indicates a need to monitor the client for toxicity?

• A. Short half-life
• B. High therapeutic index
• C. Highly protein-bound
• D. Low bioavailability

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Highly protein-bound.' Drugs that are highly protein-bound can displace from protein-binding sites, leading to increased free drug levels in the blood, which can result in toxicity. Monitoring the client for toxicity is crucial when administering highly protein-bound drugs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A short half-life does not necessarily indicate a need for monitoring toxicity; a high therapeutic index indicates a wide safety margin between the effective dose and the toxic dose, reducing the risk of toxicity; low bioavailability refers to the fraction of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation unchanged and does not directly relate to the risk of toxicity.

5. A client with asthma is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler.
• B. Take the medication only during asthma attacks.
• C. Avoid using the inhaler before exercise.
• D. Clean the inhaler with hot water after each use.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching the nurse should provide to a client prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid is to rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler. This helps prevent oral fungal infections, a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids. Choice B is incorrect because inhaled corticosteroids are usually used regularly, not just during asthma attacks. Choice C is incorrect as using the inhaler before exercise can actually help prevent exercise-induced bronchospasm. Choice D is incorrect because cleaning the inhaler with hot water after each use is not necessary and may damage the device.

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