HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client with emphysema reports shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy.
- B. Assess the client’s respiratory rate and effort.
- C. Prepare the client for intubation.
- D. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Shortness of breath in a client with emphysema may indicate respiratory distress. Assessing the client’s respiratory rate and effort is the first priority to determine the severity of the distress and guide appropriate interventions. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice A) could be necessary, but assessing the client first is crucial to tailor the intervention. Intubation (Choice C) is an invasive procedure that is not the initial priority. Increasing oxygen flow rate (Choice D) should only be done after a thorough assessment to avoid potential harm.
2. A client with a tracheostomy develops copious, thick secretions. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Increase the client's fluid intake.
- B. Perform tracheal suctioning.
- C. Administer a mucolytic agent.
- D. Increase the humidity of the oxygen source.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the humidity of the oxygen source. This action helps thin thick secretions, making them easier to clear from the tracheostomy tube. Increasing fluid intake (Choice A) can be beneficial in some cases but addressing humidity is more specific to managing thick secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Tracheal suctioning (Choice B) should be done after attempting to thin the secretions with increased humidity. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice C) is a possible intervention but typically comes after addressing humidity and before resorting to suctioning to avoid unnecessary invasiveness.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage the client to eat foods rich in potassium
- B. Administer a potassium-sparing diuretic
- C. Administer a potassium-binding medication
- D. Hold all medications containing potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is dangerous and requires immediate treatment. Administering a potassium-binding medication will help lower potassium levels and prevent life-threatening complications.
4. During an excretory urogram, which observation made by the nurse indicates a complication?
- A. The client complains of a salty taste in the mouth when the dye is injected
- B. The client's entire body turns a bright red color
- C. The client states 'I have a feeling of getting warm.'
- D. The client gags and complains 'I am getting sick.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a whole-body bright red color indicates a severe reaction to the contrast dye and must be addressed immediately. Choices A, C, and D do not indicate a severe complication during an excretory urogram. Choice A is a common side effect of the dye, choice C could be a normal sensation due to the injection, and choice D may indicate nausea which is less severe compared to a whole-body red color reaction.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin injections. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. Monitoring hemoglobin is crucial to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Serum potassium levels are often monitored in chronic kidney disease, but it is not the primary parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. White blood cell count and platelet count are not directly influenced by erythropoietin injections for chronic kidney disease.
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