HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following lung surgery. What is the most important intervention to ensure the chest tube functions properly?
- A. Clamp the tube if there is excessive drainage
- B. Empty the drainage chamber every 2 hours
- C. Keep the drainage system below chest level
- D. Milk the tube to prevent clots from forming
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Keeping the chest tube drainage system below chest level ensures that gravity assists with drainage and prevents fluid or air from flowing back into the pleural space, which could compromise lung function. Clamping the tube if there is excessive drainage (choice A) is incorrect as it can lead to a buildup of pressure and compromise the drainage system. Emptying the drainage chamber every 2 hours (choice B) is important but not as crucial as maintaining the drainage system below chest level. Milking the tube to prevent clots from forming (choice D) is incorrect and could lead to complications such as tube occlusion or damage to the tissue.
2. A middle-aged woman talks to the nurse in the healthcare provider's office about uterine fibroids, also called leiomyomas or myomas. What statement by the woman indicates more education is needed?
- A. I am one out of every 4 women that get fibroids, and among women my age, between the 30s or 40s, fibroids occur more frequently.
- B. My fibroids are noncancerous tumors that grow slowly.
- C. The associated problems I have had are pelvic pressure and pain, urinary incontinence, frequent urination or urine retention, and constipation.
- D. Fibroids that cause no problems still need to be taken out.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because fibroids that do not cause symptoms do not necessarily need to be removed unless they pose other health risks. Choice A provides accurate information about the prevalence of fibroids among women of the woman's age group. Choice B correctly describes fibroids as noncancerous tumors. Choice C lists common symptoms associated with fibroids, which is relevant information. However, choice D is incorrect as fibroids that are asymptomatic or not causing problems usually do not require treatment, unless they lead to complications or health risks.
3. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Discontinue the medication immediately
- B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
- C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
- D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.
4. After receiving a report on an inpatient acute care unit, which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. Client with pneumonia who has a fever of 101.5°F
- B. Client who underwent knee surgery and needs dressing change
- C. Client with a bowel obstruction due to a volvulus experiencing abdominal rigidity
- D. Client with diabetes requesting insulin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Abdominal rigidity in a client with a bowel obstruction could indicate peritonitis, a serious complication requiring immediate attention. Volvulus, a twisting of the intestine, can lead to bowel ischemia and necrosis. Clients with pneumonia (choice A) may need assessment and treatment for infection, but it is not as immediately life-threatening as a bowel obstruction. A client who underwent knee surgery (choice B) needing a dressing change can typically wait for assessment compared to a potential surgical emergency. Similarly, a client with diabetes requesting insulin (choice D) may require attention to maintain blood glucose levels, but it is not as urgent as a suspected bowel obstruction with possible peritonitis.
5. A client with tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged on isoniazid and rifampin. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Complete the full course of antibiotics.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider if you experience tingling in your fingers.
- C. Use a disposable mask when in contact with others.
- D. Monitor liver function tests monthly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to use a disposable mask when in contact with others. TB is highly contagious, and wearing a mask can help prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A is important but not the priority as using a mask directly impacts public health. Choice B is related to a potential side effect of isoniazid, peripheral neuropathy, but immediate healthcare provider notification is not required. Choice D is relevant due to the potential hepatotoxicity of isoniazid and rifampin, but it is not the priority instruction in this scenario.
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