HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of corticosteroids.
- B. Place the client in a supine position.
- C. Encourage oral fluid intake.
- D. Review the client's recent medication history.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of corticosteroids is the correct first action when a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy presents with weakness and hypotension. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged corticosteroid use. Administering corticosteroids promptly can help correct this insufficiency and improve the client's symptoms. Placing the client in a supine position may be necessary for symptomatic hypotension, but addressing the root cause with corticosteroids is more crucial initially. Encouraging oral fluid intake is important for many conditions but is not the priority in this case. Reviewing the client's recent medication history can provide valuable information but is not the first action needed to address the client's current presentation.
2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). What should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor for signs of liver toxicity.
- B. Assess for gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea or diarrhea.
- C. Monitor for signs of infection, such as fever or sore throat.
- D. Administer DMARDs with meals to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever or sore throat, is crucial when a client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). DMARDs can suppress the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Early detection of infections allows for prompt treatment and helps prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while liver toxicity and gastrointestinal side effects are possible side effects of DMARDs, monitoring for signs of infection takes priority due to the increased risk of infections associated with these medications.
3. A client with Alzheimer's disease is prescribed donepezil. What is the most important teaching point?
- A. Take the medication as directed for best results.
- B. Report any unusual changes in behavior.
- C. This medication helps improve cognitive function.
- D. This medication is not a cure for Alzheimer's disease.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important teaching point for a client prescribed donepezil is that it helps improve cognitive function. While it is important to take the medication as directed for best results (choice A) and report any unusual changes in behavior (choice B), the key point is that donepezil is not a cure for Alzheimer's disease (choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is C.
4. A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. What assessment finding suggests the medication dosage is too high?
- A. Increased sensitivity to cold.
- B. Increased heart rate and palpitations.
- C. Improved energy levels.
- D. Improved tolerance to heat.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate and palpitations. When a client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine, these symptoms may indicate that the dosage is too high, causing the client to develop hyperthyroidism. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased sensitivity to cold is a symptom of hypothyroidism, improved energy levels are an expected outcome of levothyroxine therapy for hypothyroidism, and improved tolerance to heat is not a common sign of levothyroxine overdose.
5. A client receiving IV antibiotics for sepsis reports itching and has a rash on the chest. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer an antihistamine as prescribed.
- B. Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Slow the infusion rate and monitor the client.
- D. Administer epinephrine subcutaneously.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client receiving IV antibiotics for sepsis reports itching and a rash on the chest is to stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial in preventing the allergic reaction from worsening. Administering an antihistamine (choice A) may address the symptoms but does not address the primary concern of stopping the infusion. Slowing the infusion rate and monitoring the client (choice C) may not be sufficient if the reaction is severe. Administering epinephrine subcutaneously (choice D) is not the first-line intervention for this situation.
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