Nursing Elites

1. A client with adrenal crisis has a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138 bpm, and blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Infuse intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with adrenal crisis presenting with a high temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, the priority action for the nurse to implement first is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention aims to address the hypotension by increasing the circulating volume and improving perfusion. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering an oral antipyretic (Choice C) may help reduce the fever but does not address the primary issue of hypotension. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) may help with temperature control but does not address the hemodynamic instability caused by the adrenal crisis.

2. A client in the third trimester of pregnancy reports that she feels some 'lumpy places' in her breasts and that her nipples sometimes leak a yellowish fluid. She has an appointment with her healthcare provider in two weeks. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the client to immediately see her provider for an evaluation
• B. Assess the fluid for signs of infection
• C. Explain that this normal secretion can be assessed at the next visit
• D. Recommend breast ultrasound to rule out abnormalities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The yellowish fluid is likely colostrum, a normal finding in late pregnancy as the breasts prepare for lactation. It is common for women in the third trimester to experience 'lumpy places' in the breasts due to increased milk duct development. In this situation, the nurse should educate the client that these findings are normal physiological changes associated with pregnancy. Since the client has an upcoming appointment with her healthcare provider in two weeks, it is appropriate to reassure her that this can be further assessed during that visit. Instructing the client to immediately see her provider (Choice A) is unnecessary as this is a common finding in late pregnancy. Assessing the fluid for signs of infection (Choice B) is not warranted as colostrum leakage is a normal occurrence. Recommending a breast ultrasound (Choice D) is premature without further assessment by the healthcare provider.

3. A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotics and oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• D. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to tissue hypoxia and further complications. A productive cough with yellow sputum is common in pneumonia but may not require immediate intervention unless it worsens or is associated with other concerning symptoms. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is within the normal range, indicating adequate ventilation. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute is also within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention unless it is accompanied by other abnormal findings.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky, dizzy, and sweaty. The nurse checks the client's blood glucose level and it is 55 mg/dL. What is the nurse's next action?

• A. Give the client a glucagon injection
• B. Encourage the client to eat a high-protein snack
• C. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
• D. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which should be treated with a fast-acting carbohydrate to quickly raise the blood sugar. Administering 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets or juice, is the appropriate initial intervention for hypoglycemia. Giving a glucagon injection is reserved for severe cases or when the client is unconscious. Encouraging the client to eat a high-protein snack is not appropriate for treating acute hypoglycemia, as it is a slower-acting form of glucose. Rechecking the blood glucose level is important but should occur after providing immediate treatment to raise the blood sugar level.

5. A client with adrenal insufficiency is admitted to the ICU with acute adrenal crisis. The client's vital signs include heart rate 138 bpm and BP 80/60. What is the nurse's first intervention?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Administer an IV fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with adrenal crisis and hypotension is to administer an IV fluid bolus. In adrenal crisis, the body is deficient in cortisol, leading to hypotension. Fluid resuscitation helps stabilize the blood pressure. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN antipyretic (Choice C) is not indicated as the client's vital signs do not suggest fever. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) is not appropriate for addressing hypotension in adrenal crisis.

Similar Questions