Nursing Elites

1. A young woman with multiple sclerosis just received several immunizations in preparation for moving into a college dormitory. Two days later, she reports to the nurse that she is experiencing increasing fatigue and visual problems. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Immunizations can trigger a relapse of the disease, so get plenty of extra rest
• B. Visual problems are unrelated to the recent immunizations
• C. Increase fluid intake to reduce symptoms of fatigue
• D. Consult the healthcare provider immediately for steroid therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Immunizations can sometimes trigger relapses in multiple sclerosis due to the activation of the immune system. Extra rest can help manage these symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because visual problems can be associated with the immune response triggered by immunizations in individuals with multiple sclerosis. While increasing fluid intake is generally good advice, in this case, the nurse should focus on explaining the possible connection between the immunizations and the symptoms experienced. Choice D is not the immediate course of action; educating the patient on the potential link between immunizations and symptom exacerbation is more appropriate at this stage.

2. A client with a history of stroke is receiving warfarin. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Check the client's blood pressure.
• B. Assess for signs of bleeding.
• C. Assess the client's neurological status.
• D. Monitor the client's intake and output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding in patients. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from gums is crucial. Checking the client's blood pressure (choice A) is important but not the priority in this situation. Assessing the client's neurological status (choice C) is essential in stroke patients but is not the priority related to warfarin therapy. Monitoring intake and output (choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not the priority when a client is on warfarin, as assessing for bleeding takes precedence.

3. A client with adrenal crisis has a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138 bpm, and blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Infuse intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with adrenal crisis presenting with a high temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, the priority action for the nurse to implement first is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention aims to address the hypotension by increasing the circulating volume and improving perfusion. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering an oral antipyretic (Choice C) may help reduce the fever but does not address the primary issue of hypotension. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) may help with temperature control but does not address the hemodynamic instability caused by the adrenal crisis.

4. A client with Crohn's disease reports diarrhea. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the client to drink clear fluids and avoid solid foods.
• B. Administer antidiarrheal medication as prescribed.
• C. Encourage a high-fiber diet and regular physical activity.
• D. Restrict fluid intake and monitor electrolytes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Crohn's disease reporting diarrhea is to encourage a high-fiber diet and regular physical activity. A high-fiber diet helps manage diarrhea in Crohn's disease by adding bulk to the stool and promoting more regular bowel movements. Instructing the client to drink clear fluids and avoid solid foods (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it can further exacerbate diarrhea. Administering antidiarrheal medication (Choice B) without addressing the underlying cause may not be the best initial approach. Encouraging a high-fiber diet and physical activity (Choice C) is beneficial for managing symptoms. Restricting fluid intake and monitoring electrolytes (Choice D) is not recommended as it can lead to dehydration, which is a concern in clients with diarrhea.

5. The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Jugular vein distention
• C. Pleural effusion
• D. Bibasilar crackles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct! In right-sided congestive heart failure, jugular vein distention is a common finding due to the backup of blood in the systemic circulation. This results in increased venous pressure, leading to jugular vein distention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased urinary output, pleural effusion, and bibasilar crackles are more commonly associated with other conditions such as kidney dysfunction, lung issues, and pulmonary edema.

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