the client provides three positive responses to the cage questionnaire which interpretation should the nurse provide
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HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. The client provides three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. Which interpretation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a widely used screening tool for alcohol dependence. Two or more positive responses suggest a higher likelihood of alcohol dependence. One positive response may indicate potential alcohol issues, but two or more significantly increase the likelihood of dependence. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate interpretation. Choice A is incorrect because the CAGE questionnaire specifically focuses on alcohol-related issues, not substance abuse in general. Choice C is incorrect as one positive response does not indicate addiction but rather raises a concern. Choice D is incorrect as not all responses need to be positive to suggest alcohol dependence.

2. A client is admitted with ascites, malnutrition, and recent complaints of spitting up blood. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A round and tight abdomen suggests fluid accumulation from ascites, which could signal a more severe underlying condition requiring immediate intervention. This finding indicates increased intra-abdominal pressure, which can lead to respiratory compromise or other serious complications. Capillary refill time, bruises on arms and legs, and pitting edema in the lower legs are important assessments but do not directly indicate the need for immediate intervention as a round and tight abdomen does in this case.

3. During a neurologic assessment of a client with a suspected stroke, which finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sudden loss of consciousness in a client with a suspected stroke is the most concerning finding as it indicates a more severe neurological event, such as brain stem involvement or hemorrhage, requiring immediate intervention. While unilateral facial droop, slurred speech, and weakness in one arm are all common signs of a stroke, sudden loss of consciousness signifies a critical condition that needs urgent attention and evaluation to prevent further complications.

4. A client is receiving treatment for glaucoma. Which class of medications is commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diuretics are commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure in clients with glaucoma. They work by reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye or by increasing its outflow. Anticholinergics (Choice A) are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma and can even increase intraocular pressure. Beta blockers (Choice B) are also commonly used in glaucoma treatment as they reduce aqueous humor production. Alpha blockers (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for glaucoma and are not as commonly used as diuretics or beta blockers.

5. A client with heart failure has a prescription for digoxin. The nurse is aware that sufficient potassium should be included in the diet because hypokalemia in combination with this medication ____________.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Can predispose to dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia combined with digoxin increases the risk of dysrhythmias due to the potentiation of digoxin's effects on cardiac conduction. Choice B, May lead to oliguria, is incorrect because hypokalemia is not typically associated with oliguria. Choice C, May cause irritability and anxiety, is incorrect as these symptoms are more commonly associated with hypocalcemia. Choice D, Sometimes alters consciousness, is incorrect as altered consciousness is not a typical effect of hypokalemia combined with digoxin.

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