Nursing Elites

1. The client provides three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. Which interpretation should the nurse provide?

• A. The CAGE is a tool for identifying substance abuse.
• B. Two positive responses suggest alcohol dependence.
• C. One positive response indicates potential alcohol issues.
• D. All responses must be positive for alcohol dependence.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a widely used screening tool for alcohol dependence. Two or more positive responses suggest a higher likelihood of alcohol dependence. One positive response may indicate potential alcohol issues, but two or more significantly increase the likelihood of dependence. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate interpretation. Choice A is incorrect because the CAGE questionnaire specifically focuses on alcohol-related issues, not substance abuse in general. Choice C is incorrect as one positive response does not indicate addiction but rather raises a concern. Choice D is incorrect as not all responses need to be positive to suggest alcohol dependence.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving dialysis. The client reports muscle cramps and tingling in the hands. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to identify the cause of these symptoms?

• A. Sodium
• B. Calcium
• C. Phosphate
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle cramps and tingling in clients with chronic renal failure are often associated with hypocalcemia. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to identify imbalances and manage symptoms appropriately. Sodium, phosphate, and potassium levels are important in renal failure but are not directly related to the symptoms of muscle cramps and tingling reported by the client.

3. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?

• A. Diminished bowel sounds
• B. Loss of appetite
• C. A cold, pale lower leg
• D. Tachypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is cause for the most concern as it could indicate compromised blood circulation, potentially leading to serious complications like ischemia or thrombosis. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea are not directly related to the client's condition in atrial fibrillation and the heart rate discrepancy.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to eat foods rich in potassium
• B. Administer a potassium-sparing diuretic
• C. Administer a potassium-binding medication
• D. Hold all medications containing potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is dangerous and requires immediate treatment. Administering a potassium-binding medication will help lower potassium levels and prevent life-threatening complications.

5. A client has been given a prescription for tetracycline HCL (Sumycin). The nurse should emphasize the client to

• A. Take the medication with food or milk
• B. Avoid prolonged sun exposure
• C. Monitor for signs of yellowing skin or eyes
• D. Expect a yellow-brown discoloration of the teeth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for signs of yellowing skin or eyes.' Tetracycline can cause hepatotoxicity, leading to jaundice which may present as yellowing of the skin or eyes. This is a serious side effect that the nurse should emphasize to the client. Choice A is incorrect because tetracycline should generally be taken on an empty stomach, not with food or milk. Choice B is also incorrect as tetracycline can cause photosensitivity, but it is not directly related to yellowing skin or eyes. Choice D is incorrect because tetracycline can cause yellow-brown discoloration of the teeth, but this is usually seen in children under 8 years of age, not a common concern for adult clients.

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