Nursing Elites

1. A female client taking prednisone reports feeling tired after stopping the corticosteroid abruptly. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Auscultate breath sounds.
• B. Measure vital signs.
• C. Palpate the abdomen.
• D. Observe the skin for bruising.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to palpate the abdomen. When a client abruptly stops taking prednisone, there is a risk of adrenal insufficiency, which can present with symptoms like fatigue. Palpating the abdomen is crucial to assess for signs of adrenal crisis, such as abdominal pain, which can indicate severe adrenal insufficiency. Auscultating breath sounds (Choice A) and observing the skin for bruising (Choice D) are not the priority interventions in this situation. While measuring vital signs (Choice B) is important, palpating the abdomen takes precedence in this case to assess for potential adrenal insufficiency.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky, dizzy, and sweaty. The nurse checks the client's blood glucose level and it is 55 mg/dL. What is the nurse's next action?

• A. Give the client a glucagon injection
• B. Encourage the client to eat a high-protein snack
• C. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
• D. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which should be treated with a fast-acting carbohydrate to quickly raise the blood sugar. Administering 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets or juice, is the appropriate initial intervention for hypoglycemia. Giving a glucagon injection is reserved for severe cases or when the client is unconscious. Encouraging the client to eat a high-protein snack is not appropriate for treating acute hypoglycemia, as it is a slower-acting form of glucose. Rechecking the blood glucose level is important but should occur after providing immediate treatment to raise the blood sugar level.

3. A client receiving heparin therapy experiences a drop in platelet count. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Continue to monitor the platelet count.
• B. Discontinue the heparin infusion.
• C. Administer platelet transfusion.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. A drop in platelet count during heparin therapy may indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious condition that increases the risk of clot formation. Immediate discontinuation of heparin is necessary to prevent further complications. Administering platelet transfusion without addressing the underlying cause can be harmful. Continuing to monitor the platelet count without taking immediate action can lead to delayed intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for assessment and initiation of alternative anticoagulation therapy to manage the client's condition effectively.

4. An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Improved blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Reduced preload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing hyperglycemia. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate long-term glucose control?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C)
• C. Urine output
• D. Serum ketone level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C). Glycosylated hemoglobin reflects long-term glucose control over the past three months. Monitoring blood glucose levels provides information on the current glucose status and immediate control, but it does not give a comprehensive view of long-term control. Urine output and serum ketone levels are important indicators for other aspects of diabetes management, such as hydration status and ketone production during hyperglycemic episodes, but they do not directly reflect long-term glucose control.

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