a client with hypoglycemia is unresponsive what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. A client with hypoglycemia is unresponsive. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer glucagon intramuscularly. In an unresponsive hypoglycemic client, administering glucagon intramuscularly is the priority action as it helps raise blood glucose levels quickly. Intravenous dextrose may be challenging to administer in an unresponsive client. Checking the client's blood glucose level is important but not the priority when the client is unresponsive. Preparing to administer oral glucose is not ideal for an unresponsive client as they may not be able to swallow.

2. The nurse is conducting intake interviews of children at a city clinic. Which child is most susceptible to contracting lead poisoning?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Young children, like the 2-year-old playing on aging playground equipment, are more susceptible to lead poisoning from environmental sources due to their behaviors like hand-to-mouth contact and exploratory behaviors. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to be at high risk for lead poisoning compared to young children due to differences in exposure levels and behaviors related to potential sources of lead contamination.

3. During an excretory urogram, which observation made by the nurse indicates a complication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a whole-body bright red color indicates a severe reaction to the contrast dye and must be addressed immediately. Choices A, C, and D do not indicate a severe complication during an excretory urogram. Choice A is a common side effect of the dye, choice C could be a normal sensation due to the injection, and choice D may indicate nausea which is less severe compared to a whole-body red color reaction.

4. A client receiving IV heparin reports abdominal pain and tarry stools. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Abdominal pain and tarry stools are indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin and is used to reverse its effects in cases of bleeding. Continuing the heparin infusion (Choice B) is not appropriate when the client is experiencing signs of bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and assessing abdominal pain (Choice C) is important but not the priority when immediate action is required to address potential bleeding. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; addressing the underlying cause of bleeding takes precedence.

5. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Injections over 1 mL should be split into two separate injections for young children. This helps in preventing discomfort, ensuring proper absorption, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Giving the medication in one injection of 2.0 ml might be too much for a 2-year-old child. Choices B and D are incorrect because the dorsal gluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential injury, and changing the form of medication might not be necessary if the volume can be adjusted. Choice C is unnecessary as splitting the dose into two injections is the appropriate action.

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