a client receiving full strength continuous enteral tube feeding develops diarrhea what intervention should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. A client receiving full-strength continuous enteral tube feeding develops diarrhea. What intervention should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops diarrhea from continuous enteral tube feeding, diluting the feeding to half strength and continuing at the same rate is the appropriate intervention. This helps reduce the strength of the feeding, minimizing gastrointestinal upset while still providing necessary nutrition. Stopping the feeding abruptly (Choice A) may lead to nutritional deficits. Simply reducing the feeding rate (Choice C) may not effectively address the issue of diarrhea. Adding fiber (Choice D) could potentially worsen the diarrhea in this scenario instead of resolving it.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Which of the following interventions is a priority to maintain client safety?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the correct placement of a nasogastric tube before each feeding is essential to prevent aspiration and ensure that the tube is properly positioned in the stomach or intestine. This action is a priority to maintain client safety. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours is important for tube patency but is not the priority over verifying placement. Securing the tube with tape and keeping the head of the bed elevated are crucial but are considered secondary measures compared to confirming the correct tube placement.

3. In the critical care unit, which client should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse (RN)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client with a newly fractured femur and soft wrist restraints should receive the most care hours as they have physical limitations due to the fracture and mental limitations due to being restrained. This client requires continuous monitoring, support, and frequent assessments to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D do not have the same level of physical and mental care needs as the client with the newly fractured femur and soft wrist restraints.

4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). What should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever or sore throat, is crucial when a client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). DMARDs can suppress the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Early detection of infections allows for prompt treatment and helps prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while liver toxicity and gastrointestinal side effects are possible side effects of DMARDs, monitoring for signs of infection takes priority due to the increased risk of infections associated with these medications.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What lab value should the nurse review before administering the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International Normalized Ratio (INR). Before administering warfarin to a client with deep vein thrombosis, the nurse should review the INR to ensure the client is within the therapeutic range. INR is specifically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not the primary lab value used to monitor warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to measure how long blood takes to clot. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) assess for anemia and the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

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