HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to provide?
- A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
- B. Take the medication at the same time every day to maintain consistent thyroid levels.
- C. Expect increased sensitivity to cold as a side effect of the medication.
- D. Increase the dosage of levothyroxine if symptoms worsen.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Levothyroxine should be taken at the same time every day to maintain stable thyroid hormone levels and ensure effective management of hypothyroidism. Consistent dosing is critical for preventing fluctuations in hormone levels. Choice A is incorrect because levothyroxine is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect because increased sensitivity to cold is not a common side effect of levothyroxine. Choice D is incorrect because adjusting the dosage without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous and should not be done independently.
2. A client with anxiety disorder is experiencing increased anxiety prior to vaginal delivery. What should the nurse’s initial action be?
- A. Increase the client's sedative dose
- B. Encourage the client to express her feelings and provide emotional support
- C. Initiate breathing techniques to manage anxiety
- D. Administer anxiolytic medication to calm the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial action for a client with anxiety disorder experiencing increased anxiety prior to vaginal delivery is to encourage the client to express her feelings and provide emotional support. Emotional support is crucial in reducing anxiety during childbirth. Initiating breathing techniques or administering medications should come after emotional support has been provided. Increasing sedative doses may not address the underlying emotional needs of the client and can have potential risks.
3. A client who gave birth 48 hours ago has decided to bottle-feed the infant. The nurse observes that both breasts were swollen, warm, and tender on palpation during the assessment. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take warm showers to reduce swelling
- B. Wear a tight-fitting bra for support
- C. Apply ice to the breasts for comfort
- D. Express milk manually to relieve discomfort
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to apply ice to the breasts for comfort. Applying ice can help reduce swelling and discomfort associated with engorgement in a woman who is not breastfeeding. Expressing milk manually would stimulate further milk production, which is not desired in this case. Wearing a tight bra could increase discomfort by putting pressure on the engorged breasts. Warm showers may actually increase swelling due to the vasodilation effect of heat.
4. A client with advanced chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload
- B. Increase sodium intake to improve fluid balance
- C. Increase potassium intake to prevent hypokalemia
- D. Increase protein intake to promote healing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.' Clients with advanced chronic kidney disease are at risk of fluid retention, which can lead to complications like fluid overload and hypertension. Therefore, it is crucial to instruct the client to limit fluid intake. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can exacerbate fluid retention and hypertension in clients with CKD. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake can be dangerous for clients with CKD who may already have elevated potassium levels. Choice D is incorrect because while protein intake may need to be adjusted for clients on hemodialysis, the priority in this case is managing fluid intake.
5. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
- D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.
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