Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is experiencing shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer prescribed diuretics
• B. Place the client in a supine position
• C. Restrict fluid intake immediately
• D. Increase the client's sodium intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer prescribed diuretics. Diuretics are prescribed to reduce fluid overload in clients with heart failure. By promoting urine output, diuretics help alleviate symptoms like shortness of breath and swelling. While placing the client in a supine position can help with breathing and fluid redistribution, administering diuretics takes precedence as it directly addresses fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake immediately may be necessary in some cases, but the immediate priority is to administer diuretics. Increasing the client's sodium intake would worsen fluid retention and is contraindicated in heart failure.

2. A client who recently had a hip replacement has a strong odor from the urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Obtain a urine sample from the bedpan.
• B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• C. Measure the client's oral temperature.
• D. Remove dressing and assess surgical site.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the client's oral temperature. In this scenario, the strong odor from urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing are concerning signs that suggest a possible infection. Fever is a common sign of infection, so measuring the client's temperature will help confirm if an infection is present. Obtaining a urine sample, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, or removing the dressing and assessing the surgical site are not the first priority actions when infection is suspected. These actions may be necessary later but assessing the client's temperature is the initial step to evaluate for infection.

3. A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the weekly visits is?

• A. Difference in the intake and output
• B. Changes in the mucous membranes
• C. Skin turgor
• D. Weekly weight

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with altered renal function being treated at home, weekly weight is the most accurate indicator of fluid balance. Fluid retention or loss can significantly affect weight, making it a reliable measure. Choices A, B, and C are not as accurate indicators of fluid balance as weekly weight. Intake and output differences can vary in accuracy and may not capture all aspects of fluid balance. Changes in mucous membranes and skin turgor can be influenced by factors other than fluid balance, making them less precise indicators.

4. A client presses the call bell and requests pain medication for a severe headache. To assess the quality of the client's pain, which approach should the nurse use?

• A. Use the Wong-Baker Faces pain rating scale
• B. Assess vital signs to gauge pain severity
• C. Ask the client to describe the pain
• D. Offer a 1-10 pain scale

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Asking the client to describe the pain is the most appropriate approach to assess the quality of pain. It provides valuable qualitative information that aids in understanding the nature, cause, and potential management strategies for the headache. While pain rating scales like the Wong-Baker Faces scale and using vital signs can help quantify pain severity, they do not offer specific descriptive details that can give insights into the type and characteristics of the pain experienced by the client.

5. A female client experiences a sudden loss of consciousness and is taken to the emergency department. Initial assessment indicates her blood glucose level is critically low. Once stabilized, she reports being treated for anorexia nervosa. What intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s discharge plan?

• A. Encourage a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.
• B. Encourage her to join a group focusing on self-esteem.
• C. Schedule an outpatient psychosocial assessment.
• D. Teach relaxation techniques to manage stress.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Joining a group that focuses on self-esteem is the most important intervention for the nurse to include in the client's discharge plan. This can help the client address underlying emotional issues related to her anorexia nervosa and improve her mental health. Choice A is incorrect because a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet may not address the psychological factors contributing to anorexia nervosa. Choice C is incorrect as scheduling an outpatient psychosocial assessment is important but not the most crucial intervention for discharge planning in this case. Choice D is also not the priority as teaching relaxation techniques, although beneficial, may not directly address the self-esteem and emotional issues that need to be tackled in this situation.

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