HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) reports frequent heartburn. What dietary modification should the nurse recommend?
- A. Avoid eating large meals late at night.
- B. Eat a high-fat diet to buffer stomach acid.
- C. Reduce fluid intake to prevent acid reflux.
- D. Consume spicy foods to neutralize stomach acid.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend avoiding eating large meals late at night. This dietary modification can help reduce the risk of acid reflux, which can exacerbate GERD symptoms. Consuming smaller, more frequent meals is generally recommended to minimize pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice B is incorrect because a high-fat diet can worsen GERD symptoms by delaying stomach emptying. Choice C is incorrect because reducing fluid intake can lead to dehydration and will not prevent acid reflux. Choice D is incorrect because spicy foods can actually trigger or worsen acid reflux symptoms in individuals with GERD.
2. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) is experiencing hyperkalemia. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer IV calcium gluconate.
- B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).
- C. Administer insulin with dextrose.
- D. Restrict potassium intake in the client's diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) experiencing hyperkalemia is to administer IV calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps stabilize the myocardium and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias in hyperkalemia by antagonizing the cardiac effects of high potassium levels. Choice B, administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), is used to lower potassium levels in the gastrointestinal tract but is not the priority in acute severe hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering insulin with dextrose, helps drive potassium into cells but is not the priority in a client at risk for arrhythmias due to hyperkalemia. Choice D, restricting potassium intake in the client's diet, is a long-term strategy but is not the immediate priority in managing acute hyperkalemia.
3. Before a client with renal failure undergoes hemodialysis, what should the nurse assess?
- A. Check the client's potassium levels
- B. Review the client's medication list
- C. Assess the client's peripheral pulses
- D. Monitor the client's urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's potassium levels. Potassium levels are crucial to assess before hemodialysis in a client with renal failure because hyperkalemia (high potassium) is a common complication in these patients. Hemodialysis aims to remove excess potassium from the blood, making it essential to monitor potassium levels to determine the need for appropriate interventions. Reviewing the client's medication list (Choice B) is important for overall care but is not as directly relevant to the immediate concerns before hemodialysis. Assessing peripheral pulses (Choice C) and monitoring urine output (Choice D) are important aspects of nursing assessment but are not as directly related to the specific preparation needed before hemodialysis in a client with renal failure.
4. An older client with chronic emphysema is admitted to the emergency room with acute weakness, palpitations, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?
- A. Recent compliance with prescribed medications.
- B. Sleep patterns during the previous few weeks.
- C. History of smoking over the past 6 months.
- D. Activity level prior to the onset of symptoms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In this scenario, the most critical information for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview is the recent compliance with prescribed medications. This is crucial to understand the client's baseline condition and management of chronic emphysema. Monitoring medication adherence can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors that may have led to the current acute symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are not as crucial in this situation. Sleep patterns, smoking history, and activity levels are important aspects of the client's overall health but do not take precedence over medication compliance when addressing acute symptoms in a client with chronic emphysema.
5. A client is admitted with a large pleural effusion. Which procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?
- A. Thoracentesis.
- B. Endotracheal intubation.
- C. Chest tube insertion.
- D. Bronchoscopy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct procedure for a client with a large pleural effusion is thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used to remove fluid from the pleural space, which can help relieve symptoms associated with pleural effusion. Choice B (Endotracheal intubation) is incorrect as it is a procedure to secure the airway by placing a tube into the trachea. Choice C (Chest tube insertion) is incorrect as it is typically done to drain air or fluid from the pleural space over a longer period. Choice D (Bronchoscopy) is incorrect as it is a procedure used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung conditions, not specifically for pleural effusion removal.
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