Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is administering an intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test. Which technique should the nurse use?

• A. Use a 25-gauge needle at a 90-degree angle
• B. Use a 27-gauge needle at a 15-degree angle
• C. Use a 22-gauge needle at a 45-degree angle
• D. Use a 20-gauge needle at a 90-degree angle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test should be administered using a 27-gauge needle at a 15-degree angle. This technique ensures that the medication is delivered into the dermis layer of the skin. Choice A is incorrect because a 25-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection. Choice C is incorrect as a 22-gauge needle is also too large and the angle is too steep for an intradermal injection. Choice D is incorrect as a 20-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection, and a 90-degree angle would not deliver the medication accurately into the dermis.

2. An adolescent client with meningococcal meningitis is receiving a continuous IV infusion of penicillin G. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver?

• A. 83
• B. 85
• C. 87
• D. 90

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 83. The pharmacy provided the infusion at 10 million units per liter, which requires a rate of 83 mL/hour. To calculate this, multiply the dosage by the volume of the IV solution and divide by the concentration of the IV solution in million units: 10 million units per liter x 8.3 L = 83 mL/hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation based on the given information.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin. What teaching should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• B. Monitor renal function regularly due to the risk of lactic acidosis.
• C. Avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication.
• D. Check blood glucose levels regularly to ensure proper management.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed metformin includes monitoring renal function regularly due to the risk of lactic acidosis, especially in clients with impaired kidney function. While taking metformin with meals can reduce gastrointestinal upset, it is not the highest priority teaching point. Avoiding alcohol is generally recommended but not the most critical teaching point in this scenario. Checking blood glucose levels regularly is important for diabetes management but not specifically related to metformin use.

4. Which of these findings should the nurse report immediately after a client has a liver biopsy?

• A. Temperature of 99.5 degrees F (37.5 degrees C)
• B. Blood pressure of 108/70
• C. Pulse oximetry reading of 96%
• D. Severe abdominal pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, severe abdominal pain. After a liver biopsy, severe abdominal pain is a critical finding that requires immediate reporting as it may indicate internal bleeding or damage to the liver. The other vital signs provided in choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and may not be directly related to complications post liver biopsy. Therefore, the priority is to address the severe abdominal pain promptly to prevent any further complications.

5. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Thiamine supplementation
• B. Folic acid replacement
• C. Intravenous glucose
• D. Magnesium sulfate administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

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