the nurse assesses a clients wound what type of wound requires immediate intervention by the nurse
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. The nurse assesses a client’s wound. What type of wound requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lacerations, especially deep ones, are prone to bacterial contamination and may require immediate intervention to prevent infection. Abrasions, contusions, and ulcerations are not as likely to lead to immediate serious complications like infections as lacerations.

2. A nurse is working with a new graduate nurse on the delegation of tasks to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task would the new nurse need more teaching about delegating?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assessing a client's pain level. This task involves clinical judgment and interpretation, which are within the scope of a licensed nurse's practice. Delegating pain assessment to unlicensed personnel could lead to errors in pain management and inappropriate interventions. Choices A, B, and D involve tasks that can be safely delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel as they do not involve interpretation or nursing judgment. Taking a client's blood pressure, providing oral hygiene, and assisting with ambulation are all routine tasks that can be appropriately assigned to UAP under the supervision of a licensed nurse.

3. An older client is brought to the ED with a sudden onset of confusion that occurred after experiencing a fall at home. The client's daughter, who has power of attorney, has brought the client's prescriptions. Which information should the nurse provide first when reporting to the healthcare provider using SBAR communication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When utilizing the SBAR communication method, the nurse should prioritize reporting the client's increasing confusion to the healthcare provider first. Sudden onset of confusion in an older adult following a fall can indicate serious underlying conditions like a head injury, medication reaction, or infection. Addressing the confusion as the primary concern ensures prompt assessment and appropriate treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent as the client's increasing confusion and may be addressed after ensuring immediate attention to the potential critical issue.

4. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.

5. A teenager presents to the emergency department with palpitations after vaping at a party. The client is anxious, fearful, and hyperventilating. Which acid-base imbalance does the nurse anticipate the client developing?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory alkalosis. Hyperventilation from anxiety or fear causes an excessive loss of CO2, leading to respiratory alkalosis. This shift in pH results from the rapid, shallow breathing that reduces the level of carbon dioxide in the blood. Respiratory acidosis would occur in cases of poor ventilation or CO2 retention, while metabolic acidosis/alkalosis relates to disturbances in bicarbonate, not breathing patterns. Therefore, in this case, the client's hyperventilation due to anxiety would likely result in respiratory alkalosis, making option B the correct choice.

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