HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client is being discharged following a cystectomy and urinary diversion. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?
- A. Avoid lifting heavy objects for six weeks.
- B. Report any signs of cloudy urine output.
- C. Drink 8 glasses of water a day.
- D. Monitor for signs of infection at the surgical site.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to a client following a cystectomy and urinary diversion is to report any signs of cloudy urine output. Cloudy urine may indicate infection, which is a serious concern in clients with a urinary diversion. Instructing the client to report any signs of infection immediately is crucial to prevent complications. Avoiding heavy lifting is important for postoperative recovery but not as critical as identifying a potential infection. Drinking an adequate amount of water is generally beneficial for health but not the most crucial instruction in this scenario. While monitoring for signs of infection at the surgical site is essential, cloudy urine is a more specific and immediate indicator of a potential problem in clients with urinary diversions.
2. A client with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia is admitted with chest pain. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer prescribed nitroglycerin.
- B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG).
- C. Check the client's vital signs.
- D. Place the client on continuous telemetry.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). This action is crucial in assessing the heart's electrical activity and helps in the evaluation of chest pain. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after obtaining the ECG to confirm the diagnosis. Checking vital signs (Choice C) is important but does not provide direct information about the heart's electrical status. Placing the client on continuous telemetry (Choice D) may be appropriate later but does not provide immediate information on the heart's electrical activity as an ECG does.
3. A male client with HIV receiving saquinavir PO in combination with other antiretrovirals reports constant hunger and thirst but is losing weight. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Use a glucometer to check glucose level.
- B. Teach client to measure weight accurately.
- C. Explain that medication dose may need to be increased.
- D. Reassure client weight will increase as viral load decreases.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to use a glucometer to check the client's glucose level. Saquinavir, an HIV medication, can lead to hyperglycemia, which may cause symptoms like constant hunger and thirst while losing weight. Checking the glucose level will help assess for hyperglycemia. Choice B is not the priority in this situation as the client's weight loss is a concerning symptom that needs immediate attention. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the medication dose without assessing the glucose level first could exacerbate hyperglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the symptoms of constant hunger, thirst, and weight loss, which may indicate a more urgent issue like hyperglycemia.
4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse notes that the client's potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a potassium supplement
- B. Encourage the client to eat potassium-rich foods
- C. Hold the next dose of furosemide
- D. Increase the client's fluid intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is considered low, indicating hypokalemia. Administering a potassium supplement is the nurse's priority action to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels. Encouraging the client to eat potassium-rich foods is beneficial in the long term but may not rapidly correct the low potassium level. Holding the next dose of furosemide may worsen the client's heart failure symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake is not the priority action in this situation; addressing the low potassium level takes precedence to prevent potential serious complications.
5. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Thiamine supplementation
- B. Folic acid replacement
- C. Intravenous glucose
- D. Magnesium sulfate administration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.
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