Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a liver transplant client. Which instruction is most important to include in this plan?

• A. Ensure daily follow-up with the healthcare provider
• B. Take immunosuppressant medications as prescribed
• C. Avoid crowds for the first two months after surgery
• D. Return to work in three months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical instruction to include in the discharge teaching plan for a liver transplant client is to take immunosuppressant medications as prescribed. This is vital to prevent organ rejection and ensure the success of the transplant. While ensuring daily follow-up with the healthcare provider is important for monitoring progress, avoiding crowds for the first two months after surgery helps reduce the risk of infections but is not as crucial as medication adherence. Returning to work in three months is a consideration but not the most important aspect immediately post-transplant.

2. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory result would the nurse expect to find in this client?

• A. pH level of 7.45
• B. Serum calcium of 15 mg/dL
• C. Blood glucose of 450 mg/dL
• D. Sodium level of 120 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with diabetic ketoacidosis typically present with elevated blood glucose levels, often above 300 mg/dL. This high blood glucose level, along with other symptoms, helps confirm the diagnosis of DKA. A pH level of 7.45 would be indicative of alkalosis, not the acidosis seen in DKA. A serum calcium level of 15 mg/dL is significantly elevated and is not a typical finding in DKA. A sodium level of 120 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is not a characteristic laboratory finding in DKA.

3. Why is it important for the healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs?

• A. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect.
• B. Most antipsychotic drugs cause elevated blood pressure.
• C. This provides information on the amount of sodium allowed in the diet.
• D. It will indicate the need to institute antiparkinsonian drugs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: Monitoring blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs is crucial because orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect. Orthostatic hypotension can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing, increasing the risk of falls and related injuries. Therefore, regular blood pressure monitoring helps healthcare providers detect and manage this potential side effect. Incorrect Choices Rationale: - Choice B is incorrect because while antipsychotic drugs can have various side effects, causing elevated blood pressure is not a common effect associated with them. - Choice C is unrelated to blood pressure monitoring in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs. Monitoring blood pressure in this context aims to detect and manage side effects of the medication, not to assess sodium intake. - Choice D is incorrect as monitoring blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs is primarily aimed at detecting orthostatic hypotension, not as an indicator for instituting antiparkinsonian drugs.

4. Which of these findings would the nurse more closely associate with anemia in a 10-month-old infant?

• A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
• B. Pale mucosa of the eyelids and lips
• C. Hypoactivity
• D. A heart rate between 140 to 160

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pale mucous membranes, such as those of the eyelids and lips, are a classic sign of anemia in infants. Anemia leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, resulting in tissue hypoxia, which can manifest as pale mucosa. Choice A, a hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL, is within the normal range for a 10-month-old infant and would not necessarily indicate anemia. Choice C, hypoactivity, is a non-specific finding and can be present in various conditions, not specifically anemia. Choice D, a heart rate between 140 to 160, is within the normal range for an infant and is not a specific finding associated with anemia.

5. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of corticosteroids.
• B. Place the client in a supine position.
• C. Encourage oral fluid intake.
• D. Review the client's recent medication history.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of corticosteroids is the correct first action when a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy presents with weakness and hypotension. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged corticosteroid use. Administering corticosteroids promptly can help correct this insufficiency and improve the client's symptoms. Placing the client in a supine position may be necessary for symptomatic hypotension, but addressing the root cause with corticosteroids is more crucial initially. Encouraging oral fluid intake is important for many conditions but is not the priority in this case. Reviewing the client's recent medication history can provide valuable information but is not the first action needed to address the client's current presentation.

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