Nursing Elites

1. Which of these findings should the nurse report immediately after a client has a liver biopsy?

• A. Temperature of 99.5 degrees F (37.5 degrees C)
• B. Blood pressure of 108/70
• C. Pulse oximetry reading of 96%
• D. Severe abdominal pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, severe abdominal pain. After a liver biopsy, severe abdominal pain is a critical finding that requires immediate reporting as it may indicate internal bleeding or damage to the liver. The other vital signs provided in choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and may not be directly related to complications post liver biopsy. Therefore, the priority is to address the severe abdominal pain promptly to prevent any further complications.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin and reports nausea. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer an anti-nausea medication as prescribed.
• B. Assess the client's digoxin level immediately.
• C. Assess the client’s apical pulse and hold the next dose if it's below 60 bpm.
• D. Instruct the client to reduce their fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client on digoxin reports nausea, it can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's digoxin level immediately. This assessment will help determine if the nausea is related to digoxin toxicity, requiring a dosage adjustment. Administering an anti-nausea medication (Choice A) does not address the underlying issue of potential digoxin toxicity. Assessing the client's apical pulse (Choice C) is important in general digoxin monitoring but not the first action when nausea is reported. Instructing the client to reduce fluid intake (Choice D) is not the initial response to nausea in a client taking digoxin.

3. A client with pneumonia is receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

• A. Client's respiratory rate decreases from 24 to 20 breaths per minute
• B. White blood cell count decreases to normal range
• C. Client reports increased energy levels
• D. Cough becomes productive with green sputum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment and the client's condition is improving. Monitoring the white blood cell count is a more objective indicator of the body's response to the antibiotics. Choices A, C, and D may also be positive signs, but they are less specific and may vary among individuals. Respiratory rate alone may not be sufficient to indicate improvement, as other factors can influence it. Energy levels and cough characteristics are subjective and may not always correlate with the effectiveness of antibiotic treatment.

4. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?

• A. Have him drink several glasses of water
• B. Crede the bladder from the bottom to the top
• C. Assist him to stand by the side of the bed to void
• D. Wait 2 hours and have him try to void again

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action in this situation. Standing to void often helps relieve the bladder, especially after surgery. Option A, having him drink several glasses of water, may not be as effective as the client might already be adequately hydrated. Option B, Crede maneuver, is a technique for emptying the bladder by applying manual pressure and is not the first-line intervention for a client who cannot void post-surgery. Option D, waiting 2 hours before trying to void again, may delay necessary intervention if the client is experiencing urinary retention.

5. A client with adrenal insufficiency is admitted to the ICU with acute adrenal crisis. The client's vital signs include heart rate 138 bpm and BP 80/60. What is the nurse's first intervention?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Administer an IV fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with adrenal crisis and hypotension is to administer an IV fluid bolus. In adrenal crisis, the body is deficient in cortisol, leading to hypotension. Fluid resuscitation helps stabilize the blood pressure. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN antipyretic (Choice C) is not indicated as the client's vital signs do not suggest fever. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) is not appropriate for addressing hypotension in adrenal crisis.

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