a nurse is performing an initial assessment on a client which one of these findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. During an initial assessment, a healthcare provider notes that a client has elevated blood pressure. Which of the following findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease because it increases the strain on the arteries, leading to potential damage and a higher risk of developing coronary artery disease. Elevated HDL cholesterol (Choice A) is actually considered beneficial as it helps reduce the risk of heart disease. Low LDL cholesterol (Choice B) is also beneficial as high levels of LDL are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Low triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not typically considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease.

2. The nurse is caring for a client following a craniotomy. Which finding should the nurse report immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.' This finding should be reported immediately as it could indicate a serious complication such as increased intracranial pressure or respiratory compromise. In a post-craniotomy client, changes in breath sounds may be a sign of developing issues that need prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in the immediate post-craniotomy period. Pupils equal and reactive to light are expected findings, a sudden increase in urine output may require monitoring but not immediate reporting, and a small increase in blood pressure may not be alarming unless it is significantly high or accompanied by other concerning signs.

3. A client is admitted with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for a CT scan. A CT scan is essential in confirming the presence of a pulmonary embolism (PE) and guiding further treatment. Administering anticoagulant therapy (Choice A) is important in the management of PE, but it is not the priority intervention in this case. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice B) is beneficial for optimizing oxygenation but is not the priority intervention when a PE is suspected. Checking the client's oxygen saturation (Choice C) is important, but obtaining a definitive diagnosis through a CT scan takes precedence in this situation.

4. A client is admitted for first and second-degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for dyspnea or stridor is crucial as these are signs of airway compromise, which is a priority concern in burns involving the face. Burns on the face can lead to airway swelling or compromise due to airway proximity, making respiratory assessment the top priority. Covering the areas with dry sterile dressings, initiating intravenous therapy, and administering pain medication are important interventions but assessing for airway issues takes precedence in this situation.

5. A client is diagnosed with tuberculosis and is placed on isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin). The nurse should emphasize the importance of

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The importance of taking medication as prescribed. In the treatment of tuberculosis, adherence to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial to effectively manage the infection and prevent the development of drug resistance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because bronchodilators, salt intake, and sunlight exposure are not directly related to the treatment of tuberculosis with isoniazid and rifampin.

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