HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. What snack is best for the nurse to recommend?
- A. Baked apples with raisins.
- B. Yogurt with fresh berries.
- C. Avocados and cheese.
- D. Fresh fruit salad.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a client with severe neutropenia, it is crucial to recommend a snack that is low in bacteria to reduce the risk of infection. Yogurt with fresh berries is an excellent choice as it is not only low in bacteria but also provides nutritional value. Baked apples with raisins (choice A) may not be ideal as the preparation process could introduce bacteria. Avocados and cheese (choice C) may not be the best option due to their potential bacterial content. Fresh fruit salad (choice D) may have a higher risk of bacterial contamination compared to yogurt with fresh berries.
2. A client with hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. What teaching should the nurse provide about this medication?
- A. Instruct the client to avoid high-potassium foods.
- B. Monitor the client’s heart rate and report any bradycardia.
- C. Advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position.
- D. Instruct the client to avoid sudden position changes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position. Beta-blockers can cause bradycardia and hypotension, so clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness and falls. Monitoring the client's heart rate and blood pressure regularly is essential. Instructing the client to avoid high-potassium foods (Choice A) is not directly related to beta-blockers. While monitoring the client's heart rate (Choice B) is important, advising the client to rise slowly (Choice C) is more directly related to potential side effects of beta-blockers. Instructing the client to avoid sudden position changes (Choice D) is not as specific or essential as advising them to rise slowly to prevent adverse effects.
3. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?
- A. White blood cell count.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR).
- C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.
4. A client is diagnosed with Meniere's disease. Which problem should the nurse identify as most important in the plan of care?
- A. Social isolation related to hearing loss
- B. Risk for injury related to vertigo
- C. Impaired verbal communication
- D. Impaired hearing related to ear disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Vertigo is the primary symptom of Meniere's disease and can lead to falls and other injuries. Ensuring safety and addressing the risk of injury is the nurse's top priority. While social isolation and impaired hearing are significant concerns associated with Meniere's disease, the immediate danger of falls due to vertigo takes precedence in the plan of care. Impaired verbal communication, although important, is not as urgent as preventing injuries caused by vertigo.
5. A client with a history of adrenal insufficiency is admitted with acute adrenal crisis. The client complains of nausea and joint pain, vital signs show a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138, and blood pressure of 80/60. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
- B. Infuse an intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
- D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute adrenal crisis, the priority intervention is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus to address the hypotension (blood pressure of 80/60) and help stabilize the client's condition. Adequate fluid volume is crucial in managing adrenal insufficiency crisis. Options A, C, and D do not directly address the hypotension and fluid volume depletion that are critical in this situation. Analgesics, antipyretics, and cooling blankets may be considered later, but the immediate focus should be on fluid resuscitation.
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