HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. What snack is best for the nurse to recommend?
- A. Baked apples with raisins.
- B. Yogurt with fresh berries.
- C. Avocados and cheese.
- D. Fresh fruit salad.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a client with severe neutropenia, it is crucial to recommend a snack that is low in bacteria to reduce the risk of infection. Yogurt with fresh berries is an excellent choice as it is not only low in bacteria but also provides nutritional value. Baked apples with raisins (choice A) may not be ideal as the preparation process could introduce bacteria. Avocados and cheese (choice C) may not be the best option due to their potential bacterial content. Fresh fruit salad (choice D) may have a higher risk of bacterial contamination compared to yogurt with fresh berries.
2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for frequent hyperglycemic episodes and a glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) of 10%. Insulin glargine 10 units subcutaneously once a day at bedtime and a sliding scale of insulin aspart every 6 hours are prescribed. What actions should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Teach subcutaneous injection technique, site rotation, and insulin management
- B. Coordinate carbohydrate-controlled meals at consistent times and intervals
- C. Review with the client proper foot care and prevention of injury
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Effective diabetes management involves comprehensive care, including proper foot care, insulin administration technique, and maintaining carbohydrate consistency with meals. All of these interventions are critical in reducing hyperglycemic episodes and managing diabetes.
3. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
- B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds.
- C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
- D. Nausea with projectile vomiting.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis who is reporting severe abdominal pain. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Assess the client's bowel sounds
- B. Administer prescribed pain medication
- C. Encourage the client to sit upright
- D. Provide clear fluids to the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with acute pancreatitis experiencing severe abdominal pain, the priority nursing intervention is to provide pain relief. Administering prescribed pain medication is essential to improve comfort and reduce pain, which can help stabilize the client's condition. Assessing bowel sounds (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the immediate priority over pain management. Encouraging the client to sit upright (Choice C) and providing clear fluids (Choice D) are not the primary interventions for addressing severe abdominal pain in acute pancreatitis.
5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What lab value should the nurse review before administering the medication?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H)
- C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: International Normalized Ratio (INR). Before administering warfarin to a client with deep vein thrombosis, the nurse should review the INR to ensure the client is within the therapeutic range. INR is specifically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not the primary lab value used to monitor warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to measure how long blood takes to clot. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) assess for anemia and the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
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