a client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia what snack is best for the nurse to recommend
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. What snack is best for the nurse to recommend?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client with severe neutropenia, it is crucial to recommend a snack that is low in bacteria to reduce the risk of infection. Yogurt with fresh berries is an excellent choice as it is not only low in bacteria but also provides nutritional value. Baked apples with raisins (choice A) may not be ideal as the preparation process could introduce bacteria. Avocados and cheese (choice C) may not be the best option due to their potential bacterial content. Fresh fruit salad (choice D) may have a higher risk of bacterial contamination compared to yogurt with fresh berries.

2. A client is receiving treatment for glaucoma. Which class of medications is commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diuretics are commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure in clients with glaucoma. They work by reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye or by increasing its outflow. Anticholinergics (Choice A) are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma and can even increase intraocular pressure. Beta blockers (Choice B) are also commonly used in glaucoma treatment as they reduce aqueous humor production. Alpha blockers (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for glaucoma and are not as commonly used as diuretics or beta blockers.

3. An older client with SIRS has a temperature of 101.8°F, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute. Which additional finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL indicates possible acute kidney injury, which can occur during severe systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). Reporting this value promptly allows for interventions to prevent further renal damage. Elevated WBC count (choice B) is a common feature of SIRS and may not be as urgently indicative of immediate organ damage as high creatinine levels. A blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg (choice C) is relatively low but may be a typical finding in SIRS; however, renal function is critical in this context. Oxygen saturation of 95% (choice D) is within normal limits and is not as concerning as a high creatinine level in this scenario.

4. The nurse is caring for a preterm newborn with nasal flaring, grunting, and sternal retractions. After administering surfactant, which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Surfactant therapy is used to improve lung function and gas exchange in premature infants with respiratory distress. Monitoring arterial blood gases is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and ensure adequate oxygenation. While monitoring heart rate is important in neonatal care, assessing arterial blood gases will provide direct information regarding the infant's oxygenation status post-surfactant administration. Bowel sounds are not directly related to the respiratory distress symptoms described, and monitoring apnea episodes, although important in preterm infants, is not the most crucial assessment immediately following surfactant administration.

5. A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. What side effect should the nurse inform the client about?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect, but clients should be informed beforehand to prevent alarm. Choice A is incorrect as orange-colored urine is not a sign of kidney dysfunction related to rifampin. Choice C is incorrect because rifampin is more commonly associated with liver toxicity rather than kidney dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as vision changes are not a typical side effect of rifampin.

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