HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. The nurse is providing teaching to a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Eat large meals to decrease acid production
- B. Avoid lying down immediately after eating
- C. Limit fluid intake with meals
- D. Drink carbonated beverages to aid digestion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid lying down immediately after eating. This helps prevent stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus, which can worsen symptoms. Eating large meals can actually increase acid production and exacerbate GERD. Limiting fluid intake with meals may be beneficial for some individuals, but it is not a key instruction for managing GERD. Drinking carbonated beverages can trigger reflux symptoms and should be avoided by individuals with GERD.
2. An older adult client with gastroenteritis has been taking the antidiarrheal diphenoxylate for the past 24 hours. What finding requires the nurse to take further action?
- A. Monitor the client’s fluid intake.
- B. Obtain a stool sample for testing.
- C. Administer a laxative to clear the infection.
- D. Assess skin turgor and provide fluids.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Assessing skin turgor is crucial as tented skin turgor indicates dehydration, which can be worsened by antidiarrheal medications like diphenoxylate. Providing fluids is essential to address dehydration in this client. Monitoring fluid intake (choice A) is important, but assessing skin turgor takes precedence in this situation. Obtaining a stool sample for testing (choice B) could be necessary for diagnostic purposes but is not the immediate priority. Administering a laxative (choice C) is contraindicated in this case as it can worsen the client's condition by further exacerbating fluid loss.
3. A client with dyspnea is being admitted to the medical unit. To best prepare for the client's arrival, the nurse should ensure that the client's bed is in which position?
- A. Trendelenburg
- B. Supine
- C. Prone
- D. Fowler's
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Fowler's position (head elevated at 45-60 degrees) improves oxygenation by expanding the lungs, making it the best position for clients with dyspnea. Supine or prone positions restrict lung expansion, and Trendelenburg position (head down) can exacerbate breathing difficulties by increasing pressure on the lungs and diaphragm.
4. The nurse is caring for a client who had a myocardial infarction 6 hours ago. The primary goal of care at this time is to
- A. Limit the effects of tissue damage
- B. Relieve pain and anxiety
- C. Prevent arrhythmias
- D. Reduce anxiety
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Limit the effects of tissue damage.' After a myocardial infarction, the primary goal of care is to limit the damage to the heart muscle. This includes interventions to improve blood flow, oxygenation, and prevent further complications. Choice B ('Relieve pain and anxiety') is important but secondary to addressing tissue damage. Choice C ('Prevent arrhythmias') is also crucial but falls under the broader goal of limiting tissue damage. Choice D ('Reduce anxiety') is essential for holistic care but is not the primary goal immediately after a myocardial infarction.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage the client to eat foods rich in potassium
- B. Administer a potassium-sparing diuretic
- C. Administer a potassium-binding medication
- D. Hold all medications containing potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is dangerous and requires immediate treatment. Administering a potassium-binding medication will help lower potassium levels and prevent life-threatening complications.
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