HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Thiamine supplementation
- B. Folic acid replacement
- C. Intravenous glucose
- D. Magnesium sulfate administration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.
2. A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the weekly visits is?
- A. Difference in the intake and output
- B. Changes in the mucous membranes
- C. Skin turgor
- D. Weekly weight
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with altered renal function being treated at home, weekly weight is the most accurate indicator of fluid balance. Fluid retention or loss can significantly affect weight, making it a reliable measure. Choices A, B, and C are not as accurate indicators of fluid balance as weekly weight. Intake and output differences can vary in accuracy and may not capture all aspects of fluid balance. Changes in mucous membranes and skin turgor can be influenced by factors other than fluid balance, making them less precise indicators.
3. A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. What side effect should the nurse inform the client about?
- A. Report orange-colored urine as a sign of kidney dysfunction.
- B. Expect red-orange discoloration of urine as a harmless side effect.
- C. Monitor for signs of liver toxicity.
- D. Call the healthcare provider if vision changes occur.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect, but clients should be informed beforehand to prevent alarm. Choice A is incorrect as orange-colored urine is not a sign of kidney dysfunction related to rifampin. Choice C is incorrect because rifampin is more commonly associated with liver toxicity rather than kidney dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as vision changes are not a typical side effect of rifampin.
4. The client has been diagnosed with hypertension, and the nurse is providing education on dietary changes. Which food should the client be advised to avoid?
- A. Bananas
- B. Processed meats
- C. Low-fat yogurt
- D. Whole grains
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Processed meats should be avoided by clients with hypertension as they are high in sodium, which can contribute to elevated blood pressure. It is essential to limit the intake of high-sodium foods to help manage hypertension. Bananas, low-fat yogurt, and whole grains are generally beneficial for heart health due to their nutrient content and should not be avoided in a heart-healthy diet.
5. The nurse has given discharge instructions to parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin). Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?
- A. We will call the health care provider if the child develops acne.
- B. Our child should brush and floss carefully after every meal.
- C. We will skip the next dose if vomiting or fever occur.
- D. When our child is seizure-free for 6 months, we can stop the medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, so good oral hygiene is important to prevent complications.
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