Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute kidney injury has an elevated creatinine level. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer diuretics as prescribed.
• B. Prepare the client for dialysis.
• C. Restrict the client’s fluid intake.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare the client for dialysis. Clients with acute kidney injury and elevated creatinine may require dialysis to support kidney function and remove waste products from the blood. Preparing for dialysis ensures timely intervention in preventing further complications. Administering diuretics (Choice A) may worsen the client's condition by further compromising kidney function. Restricting fluid intake (Choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the priority over preparing for dialysis. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, but the immediate priority is to prepare for dialysis to address the acute kidney injury and elevated creatinine level.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis who is taking a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

• A. Potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with rheumatoid arthritis is taking NSAIDs, the nurse should monitor serum creatinine levels. NSAIDs can potentially cause kidney damage, so monitoring creatinine levels helps assess for renal impairment. While monitoring hemoglobin, potassium, and white blood cell count may also be relevant in some cases, serum creatinine is the priority due to the risk of renal complications associated with NSAID use.

3. A client in labor who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• B. Administer an intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean section.
• D. Place the client in a lateral position.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia, the first action the nurse should take is to place the client in a lateral position. This position helps improve venous return and cardiac output by relieving aortocaval compression. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary if the client shows signs of respiratory distress, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Administering an intravenous fluid bolus can help stabilize blood pressure, but repositioning the client takes precedence. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is not indicated solely based on a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia; this step would be considered if other complications arise.

4. The nurse is administering an intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test. Which technique should the nurse use?

• A. Use a 25-gauge needle at a 90-degree angle
• B. Use a 27-gauge needle at a 15-degree angle
• C. Use a 22-gauge needle at a 45-degree angle
• D. Use a 20-gauge needle at a 90-degree angle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test should be administered using a 27-gauge needle at a 15-degree angle. This technique ensures that the medication is delivered into the dermis layer of the skin. Choice A is incorrect because a 25-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection. Choice C is incorrect as a 22-gauge needle is also too large and the angle is too steep for an intradermal injection. Choice D is incorrect as a 20-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection, and a 90-degree angle would not deliver the medication accurately into the dermis.

5. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

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